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Neko [114]
4 years ago
6

The basic of objective of all marketing communication methods is to:______.

Business
1 answer:
Alex Ar [27]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

drive the receiver into action

Explanation:

The objectives of all marketing communication methods can be summarily described as the following:

1. communicate to the targeted audience

2. to compete with other competitors

3. to convince the receiver into taking action.

Hence, basis of the objective of all marketing communication methods is to drive the receiver into action. This implies that the receiver, after finding the message beneficial will take action to buy the goods or services being offered.

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Juicy Beauty manufactures and sells a face cream to small specialty stores in the greater Los Angeles area. It presents the mont
KatRina [158]

Answer: Please see explanation column for answer

Explanation:

Recasting  the income statement to emphasize contribution margin.

Juicy Beauty Operating Income Statement, June 2017

Units sold                                                            20,000

Revenues                                                         $200,000

Variable costs(subtract):

Variable manufacturing costs    $110,000

Variable marketing costs             $10,000

Total variable costs                                                 $120,000  

Contribution margin                                                   $80,000

Fixed costs

fixed manufacturing costs                         40,000

Fixed marketing and administrative costs 20,000

Total fixed cost                                                                $60,000

Operating income                                                           $20,000

Working  for income statement above =

Contribution margin = Revenue -Total  variable cost =$200,000- ($110,000 + $10,000) - $80,000

Operating income= Contribution margin - Total fixed cost = $80,000 - $($40,000 +$20,000) -=$20,000

2  The contribution margin percentage and breakeven point in units and revenues for June 2017.

Contribution margin percentage = ,Contribution margin/ Revenue x 100%

= $80,000/ $200,000 x 100= 40 %

Contribution margin per unit = ,Contribution margin/ units sold

                                                   80,000 / 20,000= $4 per unit

Break  even point units  = Total fixed cost/ ,Contribution margin per unit

 = $60,000/ $4=  15,000units

Break even revenue=

we first calculate the selling price = Revenue / units sold = $200,000/ 20,000 =$10

Break even revenue=Break even units x per unit sold = $15,000 x $10 = $150,000.

3. Margin of safety = units sold - break even point unit

20,000 - 15,000 =5000 units

4. If the sales is 16,000 and tax is 30% , Net income is

Units sold                     16,000

Revenue                     $160,000

Contribution margin    $64,000

Total fixed cost           - $60,000

Operation income       $4,000

tax at 30 %                  - $ 1200

Net income                 $2,800

working

Revenue = units sold x sale per unit = 16,000 x $10 = $160,000

Contribution margin = Revenue x contribution margin percentage = $160,000 x 40% = $64,000

Operation income = contribution margin - fixed costs= $64,000 - $60,000 = $4000

Tax = 30% of 4000 = $1200

Net income = $4000 - $1200 = $2,800

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume that an employee of a FINRA member firm opens a securities account at another FINRA member firm. If requested, the employ
murzikaleks [220]

Answer:

C) confirmations and account statements

Explanation:

If an employee of a FINRA member firm wants to work for another FINRA firm, he/she must notify his/her employing member firm, and his/her new employer must send duplicate confirmations and account statements only if requested by the member employing firm. The member employing firm does not have to grant any type of approval or permission.

The Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) regulates member brokerage firms and exchange markets. FINRA is regulated and overseen by the SEC. They issue licences to individuals and admits companies into the financial trading industry.

3 0
3 years ago
When the Federal Reserve decreases bank's reserves through an open-market operation: ____________
Sedbober [7]

Answer:

d. the monetary base decreases, loans decrease, and the money supply decreases.

Explanation:

In the case when the federal reserve reduce the reserve of the bank via open market operation so it would be resulted in decrease in the monetary base, reduction in the loan and the reduction in the money supply. Overall, all three things would be decrease

Therefore as per the given situation, the option d is correct

And the same would be  relevant

8 0
3 years ago
If businesses are producing at capacity, and the nation is experiencing almost full employment (a very low rate of unemployment
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question is D) interest rates would be increased  by the government when there is almost full employment in the economy.

Explanation:

When in the economy, business are producing close to productivity and in the nation there is almost full employment , then it can be said that the economy is booming . Which means there is good amount of money supply in the economy and people are spending robustly and that means the demand is high , which ultimately tells that the prices of goods and services are high.

So to cut the prices, government will increase the interest rate which will lead to the increase in cost of borrowing, and that will cause decrease in money supply and demand will ultimately fall, which leads to decrease in prices of goods and services.

3 0
3 years ago
Today you purchase a $600 face-value, 8% coupon bond for $600. This bond matures over 10 years. What is the value of the cash fl
Nadya [2.5K]

Answer:

the value of the cash flow in year 5 is -$48

Explanation:

Cash flow in year 5 include a capital repayment and interest expense.This can be determined by constructing an amortization schedule from the data given.

The first step in constructing the amortization schedule is to find the Yield to Maturity.

Pv = -$600

Pmt = $600 × 8% = $48

P/yr = 1

N = 10

Fv = $600

YTM = ?

Using a Financial Calculator the Yield to Maturity is 8%.

then to determine the cash flow for year 5, we need the coupon amount (interest) and the amount of capital repayment.

Coupon  $48

Capital     $0

Total       $48

Therefore the cash flow in year 5 is -$48.

8 0
4 years ago
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