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Vikki [24]
4 years ago
11

The "pseudo dividend method" (PDM) is a valuation method involving zero explicitly forecasted dividends and an adjustment to wor

king capital to strip surplus cash.
Business
1 answer:
dsp734 years ago
5 0

This question is incomplete, below is the complete one gotten from google:

The "pseudo dividend method" (PDM) is a valuation method involving zero explicitly forecasted dividends and an adjustment to working capital to strip surplus cash. True of False?

Answer:

The "pseudo dividend method" (PDM) is a valuation method involving zero explicitly forecasted dividends and an adjustment to working capital to strip surplus cash - True

Explanation:

With regards to the pseudo dividend method" (PDM) is a valuation method The following happens:

  • There is a formally projection of all cash surpluses as paid out as dividends
  • Balance sheet will have zero for all surplus cash balances
  • Venture’s equity can be valued directly using dividends/issue line in CF Statement (or by equity VCF method)
  • There will be no excess cash in end

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Drew bought a computer for personal use from Hale Corp. for $3,000. Drew paid $2,000 in cash and signed a security agreement for
Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

Obtain a deficiency judgment against Drew for the amount owed.

Explanation:

Even though Hale repossessed the computer, it must still seek a deficiency judgment against Drew in order to recover the money owed. If Drew cannot pay his debt, he has the right to request Hale to sell the computer in order for Hale to recover the money owed.  

Repossession is one way that a lender can use to reclaim property that was put as collateral for a loan. For example, if you do not pay your car loan, the lender can simply repossess your car by taking it away without a court order. But the debtor still had the right to try to reclaim the property by paying the debt or agreeing on some type of payment procedure.

6 0
4 years ago
In producing product AA, 6,300 pounds of direct materials were used at a cost of $1.10 per pound. The standard was 6,000 pounds
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

300 A

Explanation:

(SQ - AQ) SP

(6000 - 6300)1

300 A

It means that actual quantity produced is worse than expected quantity.

5 0
4 years ago
Brian vargo, an auto repair mechanic who remains unemployed because he refuses to work for less than $1,000 an hour, is:
Verizon [17]
The answer is he is not part of the labor force. Since the labor force is comprises of the employed and the unemployed. The remainder— persons who are neither employed nor unemployed are not in the labor force. This group comprises retired persons, students, those taking care of children or other family members, and others who are neither working nor seeking work. Since the mid-1990s, naturally fewer than 1 in 10 people not in the labor force stated that they want a job.
3 0
3 years ago
To determine whether accounts payable are complete, an auditor performs a test to verify that all merchandise received is record
Leto [7]

To determine whether accounts payable are complete, an auditor performs a test to verify that all merchandise received is recorded. The population of documents for this test consists of all receiving reports.

<h3>What are receiving reports?</h3>

Receiving reposts is a kind of tool that is used to list, document or note all the transaction details of the businesses. It is generally updated and maintained by those employees of the staff who are responsible for receiving or accepting the delivery of goods.

Thus, an auditor runs a test to ensure that every item received is recorded in order to evaluate whether accounts payable are complete. The receiving reports are the population of documents for this test.

Learn more about receiving reports here:

brainly.com/question/14802834

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
A firm has an equity beta of 1.2, the risk-free rate is 3.4 percent, the market return is 15.7 percent, and the pretax cost of d
Alik [6]

Answer:

0.82

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the firm's asset beta

Using this formula

Firm's asset beta=Equity beta/(1+/D/E)

Let plug in the formula

Firm's asset beta=1.2/(1+0.47)

Firm's asset beta=1.2/1.47

Firm's asset beta=0.816

Firm's asset beta=0.82 (Approximately)

Therefore the firm's asset beta is 0.82

5 0
3 years ago
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