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3 years ago

How do you round 788.44-225.6? really need help:)

Mathematics

2 answers:

ELEN [110]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

It is actually 562.8 not 532

Igoryamba3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

532.8

Step-by-step explanation:

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The price of a refrigerator is 2,199.99 for an 18 month loan. If a $300 down payment has been made, what is the monthly payment?

Troyanec [42]

Answer:

This is verry easy! Is 105.56,do u need expabation?

7 0

2 years ago

Which is equivalent to 2 5/6<br><br>A. 5/3<br>B. 7/6<br>C. 17/6<br>D. 12/5

Dimas [21]

The answer would be C (17/6)
This is because;
6 goes into 17 twice leaving a reminder of 5.

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A rectangular prism has a volume of 100 cubic meters. One of the dimensions is 5 meters. Which pair of measurements could be the

natali 33 [55]

Answer:

1, 4, and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

1 is correct because 5*5=25*4=100

2 is incorrect because 5*5=25*5=125

3 is incorrect because 5*4=20*4=80

4 is correct because 5*20=100*1=100

5 is correct because 5*2=10*10=100

6 is incorrect because 5*10=50*10=500

4 0

3 years ago

I need help with this i don’t understand

Phoenix [80]

Answer:

measure of third side is = 25^2 - 20^2

= 625 - 400

= 225

= √225

= 15

hope it helps

7 0

2 years ago

Suppose that 50% of all babies born in a particular hospital are boys. If 6 babies born in the hospital are randomly selected, w

WINSTONCH [101]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem, the values of the parameters are given as follows:

n = 6, p = 0.5.

The probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys is given by:

$P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)$

In which:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.0156$

$P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{5} = 0.0938$

$P(X = 2) = C_{6,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{4} = 0.2344$

Then:

$P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0156 + 0.0938 + 0.2344 = 0.3438$

0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

7 0

2 years ago