Answer:
C would be the best answer.
Answer:
《A》♡
Explanation:
From my knowledge, they studied housekeeping, motherhood, marriage, ethnic.
I read an article and I hope its A, if not..sorry ♡
Answer:
The question of “did women have a renaissance” is not something that has not been asked before. In 1977 Joan Kelly wrote an essay addressing this question specifically. In the Renaissance, when the political systems changed from the Medieval feudal systems, women of every social class saw a change in their social and political options that men did not. Celibacy became the female norm and "the relations of the sexes were restructured to one of female dependency and male domination" (Kelly 20). Women lived the life of the underlying sex. Men ruled over everything, even through half a century of Queens.
“When England was ruled for half a century by Queens but women had almost no legal power; When marriage, a women’s main vocation, cost them their personal property rights; when the ideal women was rarely seen and never heard in public; when the clothes a women wore were legally dictated by her social class; when almost all school teachers were men; when medicine was prepared and purified at home; when corsets were
constructed of wood and cosmetics made of bacon and eggs; when only half of all babies survived to adulthood?" (Hull 15).
The above passage says a lot about women in the Renaissance. The role of women was a very scarce role. Women were supposed to be seen and not heard. Rarely seen at that. Women were to be prim and proper, the ideal women. Females were able to speak their minds but their thoughts and ideas were shaped by men. Mostly everything women did had input given by men. Women were controlled by her parents from the day she is born until the day she is married, then she would be handed directly to her husband so he could take over that role. In the time of the renaissance women were considered to legally belong to their husbands. Women were supposed to be typical ‘housewives.'
Explanation:
<h3>13. Correct answer choice is:</h3><h2>D. Began violently and remained violent as the natives ruled over the colonists.</h2>
Explanation:
The Southern Colonies relationship with the Native Americans were at conflict when the English established in Jamestown, in 1670. Indians were compelled to transmit half of their estate till the general of the Powhaten Tribe prosecuted a battle between them. The Indians almost cleaned out all of the colonists because of seizures and illnesses from the water, but fortunately Captain John Smith endeavored to trade with the Indians for food and freindship with them. Later further colonists arrived from England, they began to take Indians as slaves. The colonists inslaved more Native Americans than anyone other. The Native Americans were used as menials and had to do work nearby the masters home and had to produce rice and other cash products. All of these bestow the realtionship between the Native Americans.
<h3>14. Correct answer choice is:</h3><h2>D. Based on trade and diplomacy at first, but increased violence as English population grew.
</h2>
Explanation:
By 1640 the British had rooted colonies settled along the New England coast and the Chesapeake Bay. In between were the Dutch and the small Swedish population. To the westward were the aboriginal Americans, the Indians.
Seldom favorable, seldom unfriendly, the Eastern societies were no more immigrants to the Europeans. Although Native Americans profited from passage to new technology and business, the illness and dryness for land which the initial immigrants also began posed a severe difficulty to the Indian's long-established style of living.
This is a false statement. For exapmle Ellis Iland...
