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elixir [45]
3 years ago
14

What is the expected value when a $1 lottery ticket is bought in which the purchaser wins exactly $10 million if the ticket cont

ains the six winning numbers chosen from the set {1, 2, 3,…, 50} and the purchaser wins nothing otherwise?
Business
1 answer:
Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago
7 0

We expect to lose $0.37 per lottery ticket

<u>Explanation:</u>

six winning numbers from = { 1, 2, 3, ....., 50}

So, the probability of winning:

P(win) = \frac{ no of favorable outcomes}{no of possible outcomes}

P(win) = \frac{1}{^5^0C_6} \\\\P (win) = \frac{6! X (50 - 6)!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{6! X 44!}{50!} \\\\P(win) = \frac{1}{15,890,700}

The probability of losing would be:

P(loss) = 1 - P(win)

P(loss) = 1 - \frac{1}{15,890,700} \\\\P(loss) = \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700}

According to the question,

When we win, then we gain $10 million and lose the cost of the lottery ticket.

So,

$10,000,000 - 1 = $9,999,999

When we lose, then we lose the cost of the lottery ticket = $1

The expected value is the sum of the product of each possibility x with its probability P(x):

E(x) = ∑ xP(x)

= 9,999,999 X \frac{1}{15,890,700}  + ( -1 ) X \frac{15,890,699}{15,890,700} \\\\=- \frac{5,890,700}{15,890,700} \\\\= - \frac{58,907}{158,907} \\\\= - 0.37

Thus, we expect to lose $0.37 per lottery ticket

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An investment of $1 each in two different securities led to a value of $11 (Security A) and $16 (Security B), respectively, afte
jonny [76]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P (1 + r)^n

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate  

N = number of years

Security A : 11 = 1( 1 + r)^15

11^(1/15) =  1( 1 + r)

1.173 = 1 + r

r = 1.173 - 1

r = 17.33%

Security A : 16 = 1( 1 + r)^15

16^(1/15) =  1( 1 + r)

1.20 = 1 + r

r = 1.2 - 1

r = 0.2

r = 20%

Security B earned a higher average annual rate of return as 20% is greater than 17.33%

3 0
3 years ago
​kellogg's begins to sell its cereals in new markets after conducting extensive marketing research. after the cereal begins to a
Dafna11 [192]
<span>The fact that Kellog is increases its promotion expenditure to counteract competitive responses means that </span>Kellogg's is in the​ maturity stage of the product life cycle. The maturity stage us the third stage of the product life cycle, and comes a<span>fter the </span>Introduction<span> and </span>Growth<span> stages.
</span>In this stage the companies are focused on maintaining their market share in the face of a number of different challenges.
7 0
3 years ago
In the perfectly competitive gadget industry there are 10 firms with identical costs given by C = 500 + 20q + q2, none of which
IgorC [24]

Answer:

The explanation is below

Explanation:

A.  Shutdown point is achieved when price equal AVC. when price lowers than the AVC, firm shutdown.

VC = q^2

AVC = q

So,

P = q is the shutdown point.

B.  For profit maximizing level of output,

P = MR = MC

500 = 20 + 2q

q = 240 units

So, profit maximization level of output = 240 units

C.  Firm level supply curve = MC curve above the shutdown point

Number of firms = 5

So,

Industry supply curve = 10*MC = 200+20Q

Industry supply curve = 200+20Q

It shows that MC curve above the shutdown point is supply curve.

4 0
3 years ago
When the Fed sells government securities in the open​ market, the money supply​ ________ because​ ________. A. ​increases; banks
Brums [2.3K]

Answer: Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Open market operations: In Open market operations, there is a buying and selling of government securities by the central bank of a nation. It is a monetary policy instrument that is used to control money supply in an economy.

If Fed sells the government securities in the open market then as a result there is a transfer of from public to Fed. So, there is a fall in the money supply because banks lose liquidity. Now, banks are able to make fewer loans to the borrowers and checking deposits also decreases.

5 0
3 years ago
Four years ago, a popular sandwich company used to sell 12-inch roast beef subs for only $5, but the same product now costs $7.6
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

11.36%

Explanation:

Divide the new price of roast beef with the old one. 7.69 / 5

7.69 ÷ 5 = 1.538

Also divide 1 with the number of years inflation occur

1 ÷ 4 = 0.25

Next, is to raise the first answer gotten to the power of second.

1. 538 ^ 0.25 = 1.113625

Subtract from from 1

1 - 1.1136235 = -0.1136 = - 11.36%

8 0
3 years ago
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