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bixtya [17]
3 years ago
8

8.5 Chrysler LLC Chrysler LLC, the now privately held company sold-off by Daimler-Chrysler, must pay floating rate interest thre

e months from now. It wants to lock in these interest payments by buying an interest rate futures contract. Interest rate futures for three months from now settled at 93.07, for a yield of 6.93% per annum. a. If the floating interest rate three months from now is 6.00%, what did Chrysler gain or lose (don't forget to input minus)
Business
1 answer:
murzikaleks [220]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: -0.93%

Explanation:

In 3 months time Chrysler will have to pay a yield of 6.93% when in fact 3 months from now, had they not bought the futures, they would have to pay 6%.

This means that they will have overpayed with the futures contract.

The amount in interest they overpayed by can simply be calculated as,

= Floating Rate 3 months from.now - Effective yield on Futures contract

= 6% - 6.93%

= -0.93%

Chrysler made a loss of (0.93% )

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zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer 1.

DVD Equipment Set Yoga Mat

Sale in Units 13500 4500 9000

Sale Mix 3 1 2

Sales Mix Ratio = 3:1:2

Answer 2.

Let the Break Even Sales = X Units

Therefore, Linear equation of BEP:

3/6 X (8-4) + 1/6 X (25-15) + 2/6 X (16-9) = 119520 (Fixed Costs)

X = 19920 Units

BEP of

DVD = 19,920 Units X 3/6 = 9960 Units

Equipment Set = 19,920 Units X 1/6 = 3320 Units

Yoga Mat = 19920 Units X 2/6 = 6640 Units

Answer 3.

DVD Equipment Set Yoga Mat Total

Sale in Units 13,500 4,500 9,000 27,000

SP 8 25 16

Sales in $ 108,000 112,500 144,000 364,500

Less: Variable Costs 54,000 67,500 81,000 202,500

Contribution 54,000 45,000 63,000 162,000

Contribution Margin Ratio 50.00% 40.00% 43.75% 44.44%

Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution / Sales

Overall Break Even Sales Revenue = $119520 (Fixed Costs) / 44.44% (Contribution Margin Ratio)

Overall Break Even Sales Revenue = $268,920

Answer 4.

Margin of Safety = Sales - BES

Margin of Safety = $364,500 - 268920 = $95,580

Explanation:

4 0
4 years ago
Joe works for a life insurance company that funds commercial investment projects and often insures these projects by insisting o
Mademuasel [1]

Answer: Participation

Explanation:

Participation financing is a firm of financing whereby a loan is shared by several parties because such loans are too huge and a party cannot take the loan alone.

Since we are informed that works for a life insurance company that funds commercial investment projects and often insures these projects by insisting on an equity position, this means that participation financing is being practiced.

7 0
3 years ago
General Widget partnership assets amount to $34,000 after liquidation. Frank, Gene, and Hank, equal partners, each contributed $
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

$7,000

Explanation:

Balance to be distributed = Assets amount after liquidation - Creditor - Gene loan to the business

Therefore,

Balance to be distributed = $34,000 - $23,000 - $5,000 = $6,000

Since there is no agreement among the partners regarding the distribution of profits, the amount to be distributed will be shared equally for each partners as follows:

Each partner's of the amount to be distributed = $6,000/3 = $2,000

Amount received by Gene = Loan amount from + Distributed balance share

                                             = $5,000 + $2,000

Amount received by Gene = $7,000

Therefore, Gene gets $7,000 in distribution.

8 0
3 years ago
Country A can produce two goods: good X is labor-intensive and good Y is labor-intensive. As a result of international trade the
vekshin1

Answer:

Both goods are originally labor intensive, so we can conclude that the country has a lot of labor resources, while their capital resources should be rather limited. Since the world price of good X increases compared to the price of good Y, then the country will export larger amounts of good X since its price is relatively higher.

4 0
3 years ago
The perfectly competitive firm's short-run supply curve is the Group of answer choices upward-sloping portion of its average tot
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

Portion of its marginal cost curve that lies above its average variable cost curve.

Explanation:

This is explained to be the portion of its marginal cost curve because marginal gross benefits exceeds marginal cost, the firm can earn greater profits by increasing its output.

These profits are been maximized by choosing to supply the level of output where its marginal revenue equals its marginal cost. When this revenue is below the said marginal cost, money is lost, and consequently, it must reduce its output. Profits are however utilized when the firm chooses the level of output where its marginal revenue equals its marginal cost.

4 0
4 years ago
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