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myrzilka [38]
2 years ago
8

If F(x) and G(x) are two functions such that F(G(x)) = x then F(x) and G(x) are ..?

Mathematics
2 answers:
lana [24]2 years ago
4 0
They are inverse functions though to be completely thorough your teacher should have also put g(f(x)) = x as well. Though I can see what your teacher is aiming for at least.

The idea is that whatever the output of g(x) is, it's plugged into f(x) and the initial input is the result. So g(x) takes a step forward and f(x) takes a step back undoing everything g(x) did. Which is exactly what an inverse operation does. 
olga_2 [115]2 years ago
3 0
If f(g(x))=x then they are inverse functions by definition

A is the answer
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Answer:

18 questions

Step-by-step explanation:

22 questions=55%

??? questions=45%

now what about this:

2 questions=5%

I just simplified the first equation

now 5%*???=45%

5*9=45

then we do the same thing to the other side

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kolezko [41]
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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
Find the value of k if the distance between (2,k) and (6,7) is 4√2 unit​
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

k = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

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Edit: Here is a step by step:

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(4\sqrt{2})^2 = (6-2)^2 + (7-k)^2

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4 0
3 years ago
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