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myrzilka [38]
3 years ago
8

If F(x) and G(x) are two functions such that F(G(x)) = x then F(x) and G(x) are ..?

Mathematics
2 answers:
lana [24]3 years ago
4 0
They are inverse functions though to be completely thorough your teacher should have also put g(f(x)) = x as well. Though I can see what your teacher is aiming for at least.

The idea is that whatever the output of g(x) is, it's plugged into f(x) and the initial input is the result. So g(x) takes a step forward and f(x) takes a step back undoing everything g(x) did. Which is exactly what an inverse operation does. 
olga_2 [115]3 years ago
3 0
If f(g(x))=x then they are inverse functions by definition

A is the answer
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