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aksik [14]
3 years ago
9

Find the quotient of 2,300 and (0.4 · 10^-8). In your final answer, include all of your calculations.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alex777 [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5.75x10^11

Step-by-step explanation:

quotient of 2,300 and (0.4x10^-8) is

2,300 ÷ (0.4x10^-8)

2300 = 2.3x10^3

We now have

2.3x10^3 / 0.4x10^-8

= (2.3/0.4) x ( 10^(3 - (-8))

= 5.75 x (10^(3+8))

= 5.75 x (10^11)

= 5.75x10^11

Please mark brainliest if helpful. Thanks

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For what values of t on the interval [0, 21 ]is the instantaneous velocity positive​ (the projectile moves​ upward)?
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

0 <=t<=21

Step-by-step explanation:

Projectile is Moving upwards on an interval of (0 to 21), if we plot Velocity vs Time and denote positive y-axis above 0 and negative y-axis below  0(for velocity), then from 0 to 21 t projectile is moving upwards and has positive velocity, when the projectile reaches the top of it's motion and returns back down to ground it's velocity is negative and is plotted below the y =0 (note that is for t > 21).

hence for the interval 0 <=t <=21 the instantaneous velocity is positive (Note, instantaneous velocity is also the derivative of the velocity or the slope ).

8 0
3 years ago
7. In a state lottery, a player must choose 8 of the numbers from 1 to 40. The lottery commission then performs an experiment th
Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8

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Step-by-step explanation:

Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40

a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8

There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.

b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)

8×32

P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.

There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen

c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.

There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.

5 0
4 years ago
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Answer: $3,250

Step-by-step explanation:

5% is the same as 0.05

$65,000 x 0.05 = $3,250

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