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muminat
3 years ago
7

If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4

. The expected return on the market portfolio is 12 percent, and Treasury bills currently yield 4.1 percent. The company has one bond issue outstanding that matures in 20 years and has a coupon rate of 7.2 percent. The bond currently sells for $1,090. The corporate tax rate is 35 percent.
a. What is the company's cost of debt?

b. What is the company's cost of equity?

c. What is the company's weighted average cost of capital?
Business
1 answer:
Veronika [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

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The following two graphs show the markets for smartphones in Sweden and Norway. Use the graphs to answer the questions that foll
zalisa [80]

Answer:

Assume there are no transportation costs. With trade, the price of $22.5 brings about balance in exports and imports. At this price, 600 smartphones are traded. With trade, Sweden produces 900 smartphones and consumes 300 smartphones, and Norway produces 300 smartphones and consumes 900 smartphones.

Now suppose the per-unit transportation cost from Sweden to Norway is $5. With trade, the transportation cost changes the price of smartphones in Sweden to $25 and in Norway to $25. Sweden will produce 800 smartphones and consume 400 smartphones, thus exporting 400 smartphones. Norway will produce 400 smartphones and consume 800 smartphones, thus importing 400 smartphones.

Explanation:

With no transportation costs, Sweden shall export smartphones and Norway shall import smartphones because the market price is lower in Sweden than in Norway.

The demand and supply functions for smartphones in Sweden, derived from the given values, are:

Q_{D} = 1200 - 40P\\

Q_{S} = 40P

The export supply (ES) equation is:

ES = Q_{S} - Q_{D}

ES = 40P - (1200 - 40P)

ES = 80P - 1200

The demand and supply functions for smartphones in Norway, derived from the given values, are:

Q_{D} = 1800 - 40P

Q_{S} = 40P - 600

The import demand (ID) equation is:

ID = Q_{D} - Q_{S}

ID = 1800 - 40P - (40P - 600)

ID = 2400 - 80P

The equilibrium price and quantity traded is determined where ES = ID.

80P - 1200 = 2400 - 80P

This simplifies to P = 22.5

Q = 2400 - 80(22.5) = 600

Next, a transaction cost of $5 per unit is imposed from Sweden to Norway. This changes the ES function as follows.

New ES = 80(P - 5) - 1200

New ES = 80P - 1600

The new equilibrium is where New ES = MD.

80P - 1600 = 2400 - 80P

This simplifies to P = 25

Q = 80(25) - 1600 = 400

7 0
4 years ago
Jack performs his work and his assignments well. Jack is demonstrating that he is _____.
Alenkinab [10]
A and c because jack knows how to do his work
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3 years ago
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A subsidiary ledger:(A) used in place of the general ledger if the general ledger is destroyed or stolen.(B) a group of accounts
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

The correct option is C

Explanation:

Subsidiary ledger are those kind of the ledger which is stated as the group of the similar or common accounts, whose combined balances are equal to the balance in the particular account of general ledger.

The general ledger is the account that summarizes or provide detailed information of the account balances of the subsidiary ledger is recognized as the control account or the master account.

The subsidiary ledger are those group of accounts which have a similar characteristic and provide summarized information regarding the control account.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the local market for legal services has an upward sloping supply curve, PL = 150 +0.0001QL where PL is the price of lega
Margaret [11]

Answer:

C) $50,000,000

Explanation:

The aggregate rent is the surplus earned by the lawyers for operating over their cost at this market equilibrium.

In the picture attached, the rent is showed graphically.

At PL=$250 per hour, the amount of demanded hours is QL=1,000,000.

The oportunity cost at a zero hours level is PL(0)=$150.

The rent can be calculated as:

Rent=\frac{QL_{equil} x (PL_{equil}-PL_0)}{2}\\\\\\Rent=\frac{1,000,000*(250-150)}{2}= \frac{1,000,000*(100)}{2}=50,000,000

The aggregate rent is $50,000,000.

8 0
3 years ago
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Tim, who works for Peachtree Realty, referred a buyer to a broker who works for Pinetop Realty. The referring agent is to receiv
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

$1,312.50

Explanation:

Calculation for How much was the referring agent paid

First step is to find the buyer agent amount by using the buyer's agent percentage to multiply the buyer purchased amount of the home

Using this formula

Buyer agent amount =Buyer's agent percentage× Home purchased amount

Let plug in the formula

Buyer agent amount=1.5%×$350,000

Buyer agent amount=$5,250

The last step is to find How much was the referring agent paid

Using this formula

Amount referring agent paid =Buyer agent amount× Percentage of buyer side commission

Let plug in the formula

Amount referring agent paid=$5,250×25%

Amount referring agent paid=$1,312.50

Therefore the amount that the referring agent paid will be $1,312.50

5 0
3 years ago
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