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skad [1K]
3 years ago
14

Amanda makes colored paper cone cups to serve nuts at a charity event. The height of each paper cone is 15 centimeters, and the

diameter of each paper cone is 10 centimeters.
What is the volume of each paper cone?
Mathematics
1 answer:
allsm [11]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

V=261.80 \ cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

-The volume of a cone is given by the formula:

V=\pi r^2 \frac{h}{3}

Where:

  • r is the cone's radius.
  • h is the cone's height.

#We substitute for r and h in the formula to solve for V:

V=\pi r^2 \frac{h}{3}\\\\=\frac{1}{3}\pi \times 5^2\times 10\\\\=261.80\ cm^3

Hence, the each cone's volume is 261.80 \ cm^3

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Work out the area of a triangle base 7.5m and height 6cm
navik [9.2K]
First convert 7.5 meters to 750cm, then use your formula A=1/2bh and pop it in your calculator: (1/2)(750)(6) and be sure to include cm as the unit of measurement in your final answer.
5 0
3 years ago
Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
Dan spends 2 5 of his wages on rent and 1 2 on food. If he makes ?430 per week, how much money does he have left?
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

Dan would be left over with $43 a week.

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{2}{5} = 40%

\frac{1}{2} = 50%

Rent: $430 - 40% = $172

Food: $430 - 50% = $215

$215 + $172 = $387

$430 - $387 = $43

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If you had 30/57s of a cookie how much would each person get if there is 4 people
Marianna [84]

I believe 4 people would get 7.5 part of of it

5 0
2 years ago
Alejandro is flying a kite, holding his hands a distance of 3.5 feet above the ground
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer: 52.34

Step-by-step explanation: sin23=opposite/hypotenuse=x/125

sin23/1=x/125

125sin23=x

x=48.841391... add 3.5 = 52.341391... round to 52.34

7 0
2 years ago
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