Answer:
Hello! I hope I am correct! :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let’s first calculate the black circle & the white space.
Since there is more white space than the black circle, we already know that the white space will have more probability.
These are the steps you need to do, in order to so love this problem:
1. Find the area of both, the white space and the black circle.
2. Divide both of them by the area of the square.
3. Do all these steps to find the probability/hitting.
Part A:
Black circle: ( π *1^2) / ( π 5^2) = 1/25 = .04 or 3.14% chance.
So we can tell it’s close to zero.
Part B: 1 - .04 = 0.96 or 97%
This is close to one.
(Remember I am not saying the exact, it’s a estimate)
Brainliest would be appreciated!
Hope this helps! :)
By; BrainlyAnime
A: 8293
B:8393738283737383838373738
C:82837282073
D:9193
Hello from MrBillDoesMath!
Answer:
r^4- 29r^2 + 100
Discussion:
Rearrange the terms in the product as follows:
(r+2)(r-2) * (r-5)(r+5) =
(r^2 - 4) * (r^2-25) =
f^4 - (25+4)r^2 + 4*25 =
r^4- 29r^2 + 100
Thank you,
MrB
Answer:
F
Step-by-step explanation:
Distributive property :))))
