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77julia77 [94]
3 years ago
10

Jonah cut a piece of rope that was 4ft 7 inches long. How many inches is that?

Mathematics
1 answer:
hammer [34]3 years ago
4 0

So as we know 1 feet = 12 inches. So we multiply 12 x 4 which is 48. Plus 7 is 55.

So the amount of inches that Jonah cut the piece of rope is 55 inches

mark me as brainliest if this answer is correct!!!

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Your question here (keep it simple and clear to get the best answer)
ZanzabumX [31]

What is the largest organ in your body?


7 0
3 years ago
DIscrete Math
Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

  1. f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective implies there exists a function h : Y \rightarrow X such that  f\circ h = 1_Y.
  2. If there exists a function h : Y \rightarrow X such that  f\circ h = 1_Y, then f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective. From this we know that for every y\in Y there exist, at least, one x\in X such that y=f(x).

Now, define the sets X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}. Notice that the set X_y is the pre-image of the element y. Also, from the fact that f is a function we deduce that X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset, and because  f the sets X_y are no empty.

From each set X_y  choose only one element x_y, and notice that f(x_y)=y.

So, we can define the function h:Y\rightarrow X as h(y)=x_y. It is no difficult to conclude that f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y. With this we have that f\circ h=1_Y, and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function  h:Y\rightarrow X  such that f\circ h=1_Y.

Take an element y\in Y, then f\circ h(y)=y. Now, write x=h(y) and notice that x\in X. Also, with this we have that f(x)=y.

So, for every element y\in Y we have found that an element x\in X (recall that x=h(y)) such that y=f(x), which is equivalent to the fact that f is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0
3 years ago
I do draws a blueprint of a house using the scale 1 in equals 6 ft in the kitchen has a length of 24 ft what is the length of th
ikadub [295]

Answer:

Length of kitchen on blueprint = 4 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

Scale used to draw a blueprint of a house :

6 feet = 1 in.

Therefore, 1 feet = \frac{1}{6} in.

If the length of kitchen = 24 feet

Then the length of kitchen on the blueprint will be

= \frac{1}{6}\times 24

= 4 in.

Therefore, length of kitchen on blueprint is 4 in.

8 0
3 years ago
a highway is to be built between two towns, one of which lies 48.6 km south and 60.3 km west of the othe
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

whats the rest of the question or what's the available answers

8 0
1 year ago
Convert 6 gallons into fluid ounces
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

768 fluid ounces  

8 0
2 years ago
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