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Alborosie
3 years ago
7

Straight-Line Depreciation Irons Delivery Inc. purchased a new delivery truck for $42,000 on January 1, 2019. The truck is expec

ted to have a $2,020 residual value at the end of its 5-year useful life. Irons uses the straight-line method of depreciation. Required:
Business
1 answer:
Ket [755]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $7,996

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchase price= $42,000

Useful life= 5 years

Salvage value= $2,020

<u>To calculate the annual depreciation under the straight-line method, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (42,000 - 2,020) / 5

Annual depreciation= $7,996

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Addison company will issue a zero-coupon bond this coming month. The projected yield for the bond is 7%. If the par value of the
horsena [70]

Answer:

If the bond is zero coupon then there only be one lump sum payment at the end of the bond period and we will have to discount is back using the yield of the  bond to find its present value or price. Because the convention is semi annual we will divide interest by 2 to find the semi annual interest rate and to number of periods we will multiply years by 2 because of semi annual convention.

Yield= 7/2= 3.5%

a. the maturity is 20 years

We have to discount 1,000 20 years back which means 40 periods back as 20*2= 40

1,000/1.035^40=252.5725

The present value of a zero coupon $1000 bond will be $252.5725 when the yield is 7% and maturity is 20 years.

b. the maturity is 30 years

We have to discount 1,000 30 years back which means 60 periods back as 30*2= 60

1000/1.035^60=126.93

The present value of a zero coupon $1000 bond will be 126.93 when the yield is 7% and maturity is 30 years.

c. the maturity is 50 years

We have to discount 1,000 50 years back which means 100 periods back as 50*2= 100

1000/1.035^100= 32.06

The present value of a zero coupon $1000 bond will be $32.06 when the yield is 7% and maturity is 50 years.

d. the maturity is 100 years

We have to discount 1,000 100 years back which means 200 periods back as 50*2= 200

1000/1.035^200= 1.02

The present value of a zero coupon $1000 bond will be $1.02 when the yield is 7% and maturity is 100 years.

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Nicole is a calendar-year taxpayer who accounts for her business using the cash method. On average, Nicole sends out bills for a
BigorU [14]

Answer:

a) I guess that Nicole bills $12,000 per month, not $512,000.

Assuming that the last time Nicole billed her customers was November, she was able to collect $11,760 before the year ended. I will also assume that the remaining $240 are uncollectible.

If Nicole postpones billing her customers during December, her taxable income as a cash basis taxpayer will decrease by $12,000 x 70% = $8,400

she will be able to save $8,400 x 2% = $168 in current taxes, but she will have to pay them next year anyways.

b) The time value of money should affect Nicole's calculations because she is saving the interests that could be earned by $168 in 1 year. We are not given any specific interest rate but we could use 6% as an example. Nicole will gain $168 x 6% = $10.08

But she will also lose potential interests earned on the $8,400 that she billed later. Using the same interest rate, 6%, she will lose $8,400 x 6% x 1/12 (only 1 month) = $42.

That means that the net result from this = $10.08 - $42 = -$31.92.

As you can see, Nicole is losing money. The higher the interest rate, the more money she will lose.

c) The risk of increasing uncollectible accounts will always exist. Nicole already has around 2% of uncollectible accounts, and combining two bills at one time might lead to a higher percentage of uncollectible accounts. Of course, this depends on her clients, but the risk will increase a little bit or a lot, but it will increase.  

4 0
3 years ago
The WorldLight Company produces two light fixtures (products 1 and 2) that require both metal frame parts and electrical compone
Deffense [45]

Answer:

Explanation:

a) x1 = number of unit product 1 to produce , and

x2 number of unit product 2 to produce

A linear program that will maximize world light profit is the following

maximize x_1+2x_2 subject to x_1+3x_2\leq 200

2x_1+2x_2\leq 300\\\\x_2\leq 60\\\\x_1\geq 0\\\\x_2\geq 0

Unit 1 is used both in products in 1 : 3 ratio which can be a maximum of 200 unit 2 is used in 2 : 2 ratio which can be maximum of 300

So, this can be written as the inequations

Profit functio is p = 0ne dollar on product A and two dollar on product B

= x + 2y

Now , we find a feasible area whose extremeties will give the maximum profit for, the  graph is ( see attached file )

So on the graph, we can get the other extremeties of the shaded regional so which will not give maximum profit ,

Thus , the maximum possible profit is

p = ($1 * 125) + ($2 * 25)

= $175

4 0
3 years ago
A 4-year project has an annual operating cash flow of $58,500. At the beginning of the project, $4,950 in net working capital wa
valina [46]

Answer:

Net   Cash flow   in year 4   $46,140<u> </u>

Explanation:

Cash flow represent the amount of cash revenue less out of pocket cash expenditures. Non-cash related items are not included.

Year    4                                               cash flow     ;

                                                                     $

Operating cash flow                               $58,500

Working capital recouped                     4,950

Scrap value                                            6,090    

Tax payable (40%*58500)                      <u>(23400 )</u>

  Net   Cash flow                            <u>      46,140 </u>

3 0
3 years ago
The coefficient of variation, calculated as the standard deviation of expected returns divided by the expected return, is a stan
SOVA2 [1]

Answer:

The correct answer is True.

Explanation:

Whenever a conflict arises within the classification of projects between the expected monetary value and the standard deviation, the coefficient of variation is used to try to solve the problem. For this reason, it is concluded that the coefficient of variation is a standardized measure of risk.

5 0
3 years ago
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