3 years ago

I=v/r for r with steps and answer.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Aliun [14]3 years ago

7 0

Hello!

First of all, let's multiply both sides by 4.

lr=v

Now we divide both sides by l.

r=v/l

I hope this helps!

You might be interested in

The probability of drawing two red candies without replacement is 1335 , and the probability of drawing one red candy is 25 . Wh

FrozenT [24]

Answer:

13/14 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Show me how to solve 172 times 6

stepan [7]

I would recommend starting by turning 172 into 100+70+2. This makes it much easier to multiply it by 6.

(100+70+2) × 6 =

distributive property

(100×6) + (70×6) + (2×6) =

Simplify

600 + 420 + 12 =

Add it all together

1032

The answer would be 1032.

7 0

3 years ago

JEAN has $280 in her savings account. Starting next week, she will deposit $30 in her account every week. Is the amount of money

puteri [66]

<span>No, this is not proportional. After 1 week she would have $280+$30=$310. After 2 weeks she would have $310+$30=$340. The proportional time is "2 to 1", but the proportional savings is $340 to $310, which is a different proportion.</span>

4 0

3 years ago

What is the scale factor from A to B?

gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

they both have the scale factor of 16

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

Please help fast . It’s a test

fomenos

Answer:

18 + 38 = 56 x 16 = 896 divided by 2 = 448cm

7 0

4 years ago