Answer:
The correct answer is option (B) perfectly inelastic
Explanation:
It is a known facts that anytime tax is imposed on any goods at any given time, the tax falls totally on the consumers provided the elasticity of demand is zero.
Since increase in tax doesn't affect the demand for goods and services, and no matter the increment in price from the supplier, the demand remains the same. Therefore, the demand curve for goods Y is said to be perfectly inelastic.
Answer:
d. A larger fixed assets turnover ratio and a larger gain on asset disposal
Explanation:
Accelerated depreciation is a method of depreciation whereby the book value of an asset is rapidly depreciated or reduced i.e at an accelerated rate.
This method usually minimizes taxable income in the initial years as a higher amount of depreciation is claimed.
Fixed assets turnover ratio refers to what percentage of net sales is attributable to an entity's fixed assets. It is expressed as:

Gain on sale of asset disposal = Sale value - Book Value
Book Value = Cost less accumulated depreciation till date
As can be seen, Average fixed assets balance would reduce thereby increasing fixed assets turnover ratio.
Similarly, due to higher depreciation charged, Book Value would be comparatively less, which would lead to larger gain on assets disposal in the initial years.
If this is a true or false question, then the answer is False. It is not the packaging that determines the product from the competitors but the branding. A brand is an identification of its manufacturing company, it may comprise a name, symbol and/ or design.
The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "phase model of globalization." Historically, most companies have used the <span>phase model of globalization </span>to successfully enter foreign markets.
Answer:
5.48% is the bank’s ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets
Explanation:
In this question, we are asked to calculate the bank’s ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets.
Firstly, we calculate the risk weighted asset for the bank
The risk weighted assets = The sum of the all the individual assets multiplied by the their percentage risk category
RWA = (100 * 0) + (200 * 0.2) + (500 * 0.5) + (750 * 1) = 0 + 40 + 250 + 750 = 1040
Now, the tier 1 capital to risk weighted ratio = 57/1040 = 0.0548 = 5.48%