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algol13
3 years ago
5

Most economists believe that only a small gap between the wages of white males and the wages of other groups is due to education

. Most of the gap is explained by discrimination. True g
Business
1 answer:
xz_007 [3.2K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer to the question is TRUE

Explanation:

Education is one of the most influential determinants of wages, so it is a contributing factor to the racial wage gap. Different levels of education between races lead to different salaries for different racial groups. Education affects wages as it allows access to higher status occupations that offer higher profits.

When the education of the different groups becomes more equal, the wage differences decrease, although they do not disappear.

The racial wage gap of blacks and whites has been observed to differ in the public and private sectors. When the education of the different groups becomes more equal, the wage differences decrease, although they do not disappear.

Having a university degree worsens the gap, contrary to the belief that education is key to a more egalitarian society.

The growing inequality has had a greater impact among young black graduates with university degrees in the years after the Great Recession than during any other period.

In the particular case of race, it could be said that because black individuals are on average poorer and receive lower quality education, employers prefer not to hire them, however many of the black candidates may be better able to perform the job. than the average white workers. In this case, the best educated black individuals get lower salaries due to the characteristics assigned to the group in general.

The failures that occur in the labor market are caused by the low investment in human capital that they acquire as children, which is transformed into productive human capital in adulthood.

Parental education significantly increases the returns of children's education.

Although African Americans and whites had access to similar levels of education, almost 6 percent of blacks who had higher education had no job, while among whites unemployment stood at almost half, with 3.5 Percent of unemployed among graduates.

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Money supply increase=500000/10%=5000000

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Method A assumes simple interest over final fractional periods, while Method B assumes simple discount over final fractional per
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Answer:

The answer is "1.1"

Explanation:

In the case of a single Interest, the principal value is determined as follows:

\ I = Prt \\\ A = P + I\\A = P(1+rt) \\\\A = amount \\P= principle\\r = rate\\t= time

In case of discount:

D = Mrt \\P = M - D \\P = M(1-rt)\\\\Where,  D= discount \\M =\  Maturity  \ value \\

Let income amount = 100, time = 1.5 years, and rate =20 %.

Formula:

A = P(1+rt)  

A =P+I

by putting vale in the above formula we get the value that is = 76.92, thus method A will give 76.92  value.

If we calculate discount then the formula is:

P = M(1-rt)

M = 100  rate and time is same as above.

P = 100(1-0.2 \times 1.5) \\P = 100 \times \frac{70}{100} \\P = 70

Thus Method B will give the value that is 70  

calculating ratio value:

ratio = \frac{\ method\  A \ value} {\ method \ B \ value}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = \frac{76.92}{70}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = \frac{7692}{7000}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = 1.098 \ \ \ \  or \ \ \ \  1.

4 0
3 years ago
If the actual labor rate exceeds the standard labor rate and the actual labor hours exceed the number of hours allowed, the labo
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

Option D

Explanation:

As both, the actual rate and actual hours exceed the standards rate and standard hours, both rate and efficiency variance will be unfavorable.

And considering that if the actual labor rate exceeds the standard labor rate and if the actual labor-hours exceed the number of hours allowed, the total labor flexible budget variance will be unfavorable. As the variance is the difference between the Standard Cost and Actual Cost. So if both Standard rate & Standard hrs. are more than actual rate & actual hrs., Actual cost will be more than standard cost i.e. the variance will be unfavorable

Option d is correct

8 0
3 years ago
Cosmeticon, a U.S.-based firm, has recently started exporting cosmetics to India. Cosmeticon has introduced a new range of miner
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Answer:

Price skimming.

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Price skimming is a pricing strategy in which an organization gradually lowers it's selling price after initially charging it's customers a high price in order to attract more price-sensitive customers. It is mostly used by a first-mover who faces lesser competition in business.

In this scenario, Cosmeticon had no competitors in that segment of the Indian cosmetics market, so it set a very high price for its products in order to reach the premium, price-insensitive segment of the market.

6 0
3 years ago
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The multiplier for a futures contract on a stock market index is $50. The maturity of the contract is 1 year, the current level
jolli1 [7]

Answer:

The cash flow mark to market proceeds = $754.45

Explanation:

The current index value after 12 months = current stock index * (1 + risk free - dividend yield)^12

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= (1880.97 - 1865.88) * 50

The cash flow mark to market proceeds = $754.45

5 0
3 years ago
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