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natta225 [31]
3 years ago
9

Christina invested $3,000 five years ago and earns 2 percent annual interest. By leaving her interest earnings in her account, s

he increases the amount of interest she earns each year. The way she is handling her interest income is referred to as:A. Simplifying.
B. Compounding.
C. Aggregation.
D. Accumulation.
E. Discounting.
Business
1 answer:
Leya [2.2K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B. Compounding

Explanation:

In compound interest, the interest earned in a period becomes part of the principal amount for the next period. The principal amount will, therefore, be increasing every year. As the principal amount increases, the interest earned rises.

Because the interest earned becomes part of the principal amount, it means that interest earned also earns interest. Unlike the simple interest which earns constant interest throughout, compound interest increases with time.

You might be interested in
etermine the degree of operating leverage for each approach at current sales levels. (Round answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2.
viktelen [127]

Answer: $1,376,000.

Explanation:

So, we are given the following data or parameters or information which is going to assist us in solving this question effectively;

(1). The current approach and automated approach for Contribution Margin Ratio is 25 % and 50 % respectively.

(2). The current approach and automated approach for Break-even point in Sales Dollar is $ 1,248,000 and $ 1,312,000 respectively.

(3). The current approach and automated approach for Degree of Operating Leverage is 4.18 and 5 respectively.

(4). The current and automated approach for Decline in net income for a 10 % decline in sales is 41.8 % and 50 %.

(5). The current and automated approach for level of Sales where net income will be same under both options is $ 1,376,000 and $ 1,376,000 Respectively.

(6). The current approach and automated approach for Margin of Safety Ratio is 24% and 20% respectively.

Note that;

(1). BP = TFC / CMR

Where BP= Break-even point in sales dollar, TFC = Total Fixed Cost and CMR= Contribution Margin Ratio.

(2). MSR = ( ASD - BSD) / ASD × 100.

Where MSR= Margin of Safety Ratio,ASD=Actual Sales dollars, BSD= Break-even Sales dollars , and ASD = Actual Sales dollars.

(3). CMR = CM ÷ Sales × 100.

CMR = Contribution margin ratio, CM =Contribution Margin.

(4). DOL = CM ÷ NI.

Where DOL = Degree of Operating Leverage, CM = Contribution Margin and NI = Net Income.

Decline in net income for a 10 % decline in sales = OL x 10.

Where OL => Operating Leverage.

We then say that V = level of sales.

=> V x 25 % - 312,000 = V x 50 % - 656,000.

=> 0.25 V = 344,000.

V = $ 1,376,000.

4 0
3 years ago
Valvano Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single, plantwide, predetermined overhead rate based on machine-hours
alukav5142 [94]

Answer:

The estimated total manufacturing overhead is closest to $550,000

Explanation:

Total manufacturing overhead = variable + fixed overhead absorbed

Fixed overhead absorbed = Overhead absorption rate × machine hour

Overhead absorption rate = Estimated overhead/Estimated machine hours

                               = $440,000/50,000 machine hours

                              = 8.8  per machine hour

Absorbed fixed overhead = $8.8 × 50,000= $440,000

Absorbed variable overhead= $2.20  × 50,000= $110000

Total manufacturing overhead = $440,000+ 110000 =$550,000

The estimated total manufacturing overhead is closest to $550,000

3 0
3 years ago
Deltona Motors just issued 230,000 zero-coupon bonds. These bonds mature in 18 years, have a par value of $1,000, and have a yie
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

$81,959,737

Explanation:

Zero coupon bond is the bond which does not offer any interest payment. It is issued on deep discount price and Traded in the market on discounted price.

As per given data:

Numbers of Bonds = 230,000

Numbers of years to mature = n = 18 years

Face value = F = 230,000 x $1,000 = $230,000,000

YTM = 5.9%

Value of zero coupon bond = Face value / ( 1 + YTM )^n

Value of zero coupon bond = $230,000,000 / ( 1 + 5.9% )^18

Value of zero coupon bond = $230,000,000 / ( 1 + 5.9% )^18

Value of zero coupon bond = $81,959,737

7 0
3 years ago
A firm has sales of $68,400, costs of $42,900, interest paid of $2,100, and depreciation of $6,500. The tax rate is 34 percent.
tankabanditka [31]

Answer:

9.04

Explanation:

TIE ratio = profit excluding interest/interest

expense

Putting value in above equation;

TIE ratio = 68400-42900-6500/2100

TIE ratio = 9.04

7 0
4 years ago
Which of the following indicates the financial position of a practice at a point in time and shows its assets and liabilities? A
adell [148]

Answer:

The correct answer would be C, Balance Sheet.

Explanation:

A balance sheet is a document, which contains information about the Assets, Liabilities and owner's Equity of a firm, company or an organization. There is a predetermined format to write a Balance Sheet. There are two sides in this statement. One side contains Assets and Liabilities of the Company, whereas the other side contains the Owner's Equity in a particular point of time. This statement summarizes the financial balances of an individual organization. There are other financial statements of the company as well like Income Statement, cash flow statement, etc, but Balance Sheet is considered most appropriate to have a look at the assets, liabilities and equity of the company at a specific point of time.  

8 0
3 years ago
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