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Svetach [21]
3 years ago
8

The demand for chocolate chip cookie dough ice cream is likely quite elastic because

Business
1 answer:
Andrew [12]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Other flavors of ice cream are good substitutes for this particular flavor.

Explanation:

The other flavor of ice creams is the truly good substitution of Chocolate chips, in the ice cream industry there is a lot of flavors that substitute Chocolate chips So, the Demand for chocolate chips are elastic.

If there is a substitute for any commodity we can say that the other commodity demand is elastic.

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Six years ago a commercial property owner paid $490,000 for her complex which included 10 acres of land valued at $100,000. Usin
Kobotan [32]

Answer:

AS land cannot be depreciated we will first subtract the value of the land from the complex so we are left with $390,000 (490,000-100,000)

In straight line method each year the asset is depreciated by the same amount so in order to find out yearly depreciation we will divide 390,000 by 40

=9750

In 6 years the complex has depreciated for $58,500

So the current value of the apartment complex would be (490,000-58500)

The current value of the apartment complex is $431500

Explanation:

3 0
4 years ago
The Carla Vista Acres Inn is trying to determine its break-even point during its off-peak season. The Inn has 50 rooms that it r
SashulF [63]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

 Breakeven point = Fixed cost divide by Contribution margin

Contribution margin = Sales minus Variable cost.

Fixed cost

Particular           Amount

Salaries                  $5000

Utilities                   $1100

Depreciation   $1200

Maintenance   $780

Total Fixed cost = $8,080.

Variable cost =Maid services plus Other cost = $7 plus $13 = $20

Contribution = $40 minus $20 = $20.

Breakeven point in number = $8080 divide 20 = 404 rented rooms per month.

Breakeven point in $ = Breakeven point rented rooms × rent cost.

=> 404 rooms multiply $40 = $16,160.

8 0
3 years ago
A government deficit has increased from 30 to 50. The country's trade deficit is 100 and private savings equal 65 and investment
viva [34]

Answer:

If Ricardian neutrality holds true, after this change in the government's budget, private savings will equal 40.

Explanation:

S - I = X - M, where

S = Sp + Sg, where

Sp: private saving

Sg: Public saving = T - G

Sp + T - G - I = X - M

or,

Sp - I = (G - T) - (M - X) = Budget deficit - Trade deficit

Initially,

65 - 30 = 90 - 100 = - 10

When budget deficit falls to 50,

Sp - 90 = 50 - 100

Sp = - 50 + 90 = 40

Therefore, If Ricardian neutrality holds true, after this change in the government's budget, private savings will equal 40.

7 0
3 years ago
Gables purchased used Mercedes from a German company. The cars were built for the German market and met its safety and pollution
Mazyrski [523]

Answer: (E) none of the other choices

Explanation:

None of the options are correct in the above question.

The USA extends Most Favoured Nation Status to most countries in the world including Germany so that would not be a reason for the car's not to pass through customs.

The cars could indeed be a threat to national security. Just because they come from a safe country does not mean that they were not tampered with. They need to be properly inspected.

They are indeed a source of competition for US automakers but that would be no reason to stop them. Perhaps tariffs could be applied on them but they will not be stopped.

There is no provision in US Customs practices that prohibits the importation of used cars solely because they are used cars therefore it will not be a reason to halt the car's going through customs.

None of the options are therefore correct.

5 0
3 years ago
Coccia Co. wants to issue new 20-year bonds for some much-needed expansion projects. The company currently has 8 percent coupon
Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

7.28%

Explanation:

For this question we use the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment below:

Provided that

Present value = $1,075

Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 8% ÷ 2 = $40

NPER = 20 years × 2 = 40 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this, the coupon rate is

= 3.64% × 2

= 7.28%

6 0
3 years ago
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