Are two products the same when you multiply them horizontally?
1 answer:
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Answer:
Yes, they are independent because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that a taste test asks people from Texas and California which pasta they prefer, brand A or brand B. The table is given in the question.
A person is randomly selected from those tested.
And we have find that are being from Texas and preferring brand A independent events or not.
Firstly, we know that these two events will be independent when;
P(Texas) = P(Texas/brand A)
Now, P(Texas) =
= ≈ 0.45
Also, P(Texas/brand A) =
=
= ≈ 0.45
Therefore, being from Texas and preferring brand A are independent events because P(Texas) ≈ 0.45 and P(Texas/brand A) ≈ 0.45.