We can use the compound interest formula
F=P(1+i)^n
where
F=Future value of investment to be found
P=present value of investment ($1000)
i=interest per period (1/4 year)=0.04/4=0.01
n=number of periods (3 years * 4 quarters = 12)
Substitute or "Plug in" values, so to speak,
F=1000*(1+0.01)^12
use a calculator to do the sum
=1126.83 (to the nearest cent, and use the proper rounding rules)
The experimental probability of the arrow stopping on Section 2 will be
. is the ratio of the favorable event to the total number of events.
<h3>What is probability?</h3>
Probability means possibility. It deals with the occurrence of a random event. The value of probability can only be from 0 to 1.
No of arrows given in the different section ;
Section 1=18
Section 2=30
Section 3=32
The probability that the arrow stopping on Section 2 is found as;

Hence, the experimental probability of the arrow stopping on Section 2 will be
.
More about the probability link is given below.
brainly.com/question/795909
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Answer:
He should buy a 50 inch TV
Step-by-step explanation:
Using Pythagorean theorem the TV cabinet has a diagonal of :

Answer:
17/6 or 2 5/6 gallons of paint
Step-by-step explanation:
First, do 17/6= 2 5/6.
That's really all, but I can't help you with the number line because of no attachment, but just put it on the part where it says 17/6 or 2 5/6.
Hope this helped!