Answer:
a decrease in the effectiveness of assets in producing sales by a favorable trend in using assets to generate sales.
Explanation:
Assets turnover ratio = 
Therefore when the ratio increases it means the level of sales has increased, with a higher rate than earlier.
Now also with this it reflects that the effectiveness of assets in producing sales as by a favorable trend, as higher the ratio more favorable it is, as depicts higher sales.
Answer:
The answer is: Income statement
Explanation:
As she wants to get information on sales and costs, the Income statement is the statement that she should looking for. With the Balance sheet statement, it only shows information on the financial position reporting the firm's assets, liabilities and owner's equity at a specific point in time rather than the sales and costs firgures during the reporting period.
Furthermore, she should opt for Income statement rather than the common-size income statement because the common-size income statement hardly illustrates any trend during the recent years/ reporting periods, instead, it is only shown each revenue and cost items as percentage of total sales in a specific period.
In the income statement, there should be enough information for the new CFO to find trends on revenues and costs (if any) because the revenue and cost items is detailed enough and at least it should be given the comparision between sales & costs of the reporting period versus the firgures of the previous reporting period.
That statement is false. Your financial decision will not decrease when you have become an adult,
Answer:
Risk-free rate (Rf) = 8%
Return on market portfolio (Rm) = 15%
Beta (β) = 1.2
Ke = Rf + β(Rm - Rf)
Ke = 8 + 1.2(15 - 8)
Ke = 8 + 1.2(7)
Ke = 8 + 8.4
Ke = 16.40%
Earnings per share (EPS) = $10
Current dividend paid (Do) = 40% x $10 = $4
Retention rate (b) = &6/$10 x 100 = 60% = 0.6
ROE (r) = 20% = 0.2
Growth rate (g) = b x r
= 0.6 x 0.2
= 0.12 = 12%
Current market price (Po)
= Do<u>(1 + g) </u>
Ke - g
= $4<u>(1 + 0.12)</u>
0.1640 - 0.12
= $4<u>(1.12)</u>
0.044
= $101.82
Explanation:
First and foremost, we need to calculate the cost of equity based on capital asset pricing model. Then, we will determine the growth rate, which is a function of retention rate (b) and return on equity(r).
Finally, we will calculate the current market price, which is dividend paid, subject to growth, divided by the excess of cost of equity over growth rate.
Answer:
differential loss for 14,700
Explanation:
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&$Make&$Buy&$Differential&\\$Variable Cost&-73,500&-88,200&-14,700&\\$Fixed cost&-29,400&-29,400&0&\\$Total&-102,900&-117,600&-14,700&\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D%26%24Make%26%24Buy%26%24Differential%26%5C%5C%24Variable%20Cost%26-73%2C500%26-88%2C200%26-14%2C700%26%5C%5C%24Fixed%20cost%26-29%2C400%26-29%2C400%260%26%5C%5C%24Total%26-102%2C900%26-117%2C600%26-14%2C700%26%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
We multiply the variable copst per unit by the 14,7000 units
then we add the fixed cost for the total cost for the make option
Then, we multiply the 14,700 by 6 for the buy option and add the unavoidable fixed cost.
In this case, it is not convinient to buy the assembly part as it would incour in a differential loss for 14,700
