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Gnom [1K]
3 years ago
5

Every force has both of what

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dennis_Churaev [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A force is a vector quantity. As learned in an earlier unit, a vector quantity is a quantity that has both magnitude and direction. To fully describe the force acting upon an object, you must describe both the magnitude (size or numerical value) and the direction.

Step-by-step explanation:

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PLEASE HELP!!!
Aleksandr [31]

The inequality that represents the steps taken after the first day is 2000 + 500x ≥ 10000

<h3>Part A: The inequality that represents the number of steps?</h3>

The given parameters are:

  • Initial number of steps = 2000
  • Rate each day = 500
  • Total number of steps = At least 10000

In inequality, at least means greater than or equal to i.e. ≥.

So, the inequality that represents the number of step each day (x) after the first day is:

2000 + 500 * x ≥ 10000

This gives

2000 + 500x ≥ 10000

<h3>Part B: How to exceed the goal</h3>

To exceed the goal faster, Angel can do any of the following activities:

  • Increase the initial number of steps from 2000 to (say) 2500. This is represented by 2500 + 500x ≥ 10000
  • Increase the rate from 500 to (say) 600. This is represented by 2000 + 600x ≥ 10000

Read more about linear inequalities at:

brainly.com/question/18881247

#SPJ1

5 0
3 years ago
6. Why is it helpful to have both lines on the same graph? (2 points)
Eva8 [605]

Answer:Line graphs can give a quick analysis of data. You're able to quickly tell the range, minimum/maximum, as well as if there are any gaps or clusters. This also means that it can easily observe changes over a certain period of time. When drawing them, you're able to use exact values from your data.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Tina has 3/5 pound of rice she will use 2/3 of it to make fried rice for her family how much rice will Tina use to make fried ri
Komok [63]
Multiply (3/5)lb by (2/3);     

 3      2
---- * ----   This immediately reduces to 2/5 (answer)
  5     3
8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
15.
boyakko [2]

Explanation:

a)

{3 \choose 2} = \frac{3!}{2!(3-2)!} = \frac{6}{2*1} = 3

{3 \choose 1} = \frac{3!}{1!(3-1)!} = \frac{6}{1*2} = 3

b) First, we have that

{n \choose k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

On the other hand,

{n \choose n-k} = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!(n(n-k))!} = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}

Therefore, both expressions are equal. This makes sense, because selecting k elements from a group of n is the same than specify which elements you will not select. In order to specify those elements you need to select the n-k elements that will not be selected. Hence, each time you are selecting k from n, you are also selecting n-k from n, and from that reason both combinatorial numbers are equal.

4 0
4 years ago
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Use the spinner to identify the probability to the nearest hundredth of the pointer
Blizzard [7]
The answer is 0.60 because the sum of the shaded angles equals 145°, divided by 360° equals 0.60
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3 years ago
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