Answer:
A - If a bond sells at a discount, the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield
Explanation:
Yield to maturity is the expected return if the bond is held till maturity. Current yiled is the return if the bond is sold today. There is an evident relationship between yield to maturity (TYM) and the current yield.
“When a bond's market price is above par, which is known as a premium bond, its current yield and YTM are lower than its coupon rate. Conversely, when a bond sells for less than par, which is known as a discount bond, its current yield and YTM are higher than the coupon rate. Only on occasions when a bond sells for its exact par value are all three rates identical” (Bloomenthal, 2020).
According to the above statements, options C, B and D are eliminated. This leaves option A (If a bond sells at a discount, the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield) as the correct answer. This is true because YTM is calculated on purchase price rather than par value, if the purchase price is less than par value, the YTM will be greater than the current yield.
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
Credit sales is $6,000
Bad debt is 3% of net credit sales which is $180($6,000 x3%)
Creating allowance for doubtful debt entry is one of the prudent method and it tells us that some customers won't pay part of what they are owing. And it is also a contra account that offset bad debt.
According to the accounting rule, debit increases asset and expenses and vice-versa while credit decreases liability, equity, income and vice versa.
So we have have:
Dr Bad debt expense $180
Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $180
Hi :)
Population is a group of organisms of one one species, living in the same area at the same time
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Instructions are listed below
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Ms. Langley is 30 years old and has begun a retirement plan that permits her to place monthly amounts of $400 into a retirement vehicle, beginning one month from now, for 30 consecutive years.
When Ms. Langley reaches her retirement at age 60, she expects to live for 25 more years. The interest rate is 6%.
First, we need to calculate the amount of money that she will have at age 60, using the following formula.
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= monthly deposit= 400
n= 30*12= 360
i= 0.06/12= 0.005
FV= {400[(1.005^360)-1]}/0.005= $401,806.02
Months= 25years*12= 300 months
Monthly= 401,806.02/300= $1,339.35
Making a line for ur chart i'm guessing
