Answer:
The operating cash flow in this transaction is zero
Explanation:
Please see attachment.
From the described case in the question, it is clear that Frank believes in doctrine called at-will employment or employment at-will.
At-will employment is a <u>U.S term used for a condition where an employee can be fired at anytime and without any warning as long as the reason isn’t illegal by law</u>.
This type of doctrine is no longer the main doctrine used in most U.S states by the 20th century, but it was commonplace during the late 19th century.
Answer:
1. Overhead incurred during the year;
= Depreciation on manufacturing plant and equipment + Property taxes on plant + Plant Janitors wages
= 485,000 + 19,000 + 9,500
= $513,500
2. The under or over allocation depends on how much manufacturing overhead was allocated to jobs for the year.
= Actual machine hours * Overhead rate
Overhead rate = Manufacturing overhead cost / Allocated Machine hours
= 570,000 / 71,250
= $8
Allocated Manufacturing Overhead = 57,000 * 8
= $456,000
The allocated manufacturing overhead is more than the actual overhead. This means that it is Underallocated and the company did not budget enough for the overheads.
Underallocation = 513,500 - 456,000
= $57,500
Answer:
1.54
Explanation:
As we know that
The DuPont Analysis is
ROE = Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier
So we considered this formula for Manufacturer A and Manufactured B
Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier = Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier
2.0% × 1.7 × 4.9 = 2.3% × Asset turnover × 4.7
16.66% = 10.81% × Asset turnover
So, the asset turnover is 1.54
We equate this formula for both Manufactured A and manufactured B