1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
drek231 [11]
3 years ago
13

How did the absolute monarchy in 17th century russia differ from the constitutional monarchy in 17th century england

History
2 answers:
umka21 [38]3 years ago
6 0

In Russia, the system of government during the 17th century was absolute monarchy. What this means is that, under this system, a king (or <em>tzar</em>) has complete power to act in any way he sees fit. This means that he is above the law, and that the rest of the government needs to respond to his wishes only.

On the other hand, the system that operated in England was that of a constitutional monarchy. Under this system, no one is above the law. This means that the monarch does not have absolute power because he still has to respect what the law states. Moreover, the government similarly needs to adhere to these laws, and therefore, the king cannot enforce his will, but he has to negotiate and collaborate with the rest of the government.

lapo4ka [179]3 years ago
6 0
<span>In Russia, the monarchy had to assert its dominant power to gain territory and improve the economy; in England, the monarchy depended on cooperation. 
</span>
In absolute monarchies the power is centralised, and decision making process is shortened, it allows rapid improvements and effective expansion, but is very unstable and dependant on the personality.

You might be interested in
Help? I know C is not true for sure.. Mark the statement if it correctly describes Catherine the Great. A. She was an eighteenth
Alekssandra [29.7K]
A. true
B.false
C.true
D.true
E.false
4 0
3 years ago
What is a characteristic of the social order in early permanent settlements?
zaharov [31]

Answer:

it is the first one

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How did the british government attempt to eliminate conflict between Native Americans and colonists?
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

by forbidding settlement west of the appalachian mountains

Explanation:

The Proclamation of 1763 was issued by the British at the end of the French and Indian War to appease Native Americans by checking the encroachment of European settlers on their lands.

Hope that helps!

3 0
3 years ago
Dose anyone know about this
Y_Kistochka [10]
Dose anyone know about what?
6 0
3 years ago
What was one major outcome of the 1884 Berlin Conference?​
Rina8888 [55]
Africa was split into pieces and every European country had a share
8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Marshall was a rancher in New Mexico. His dog ran off and he had to chase her past the boundaries of his ranch. When he finally
    11·2 answers
  • New trade agreements are expected to
    9·1 answer
  • Who was at the<br> head of the Roman Republic? *
    7·2 answers
  • Need help. Click for better view/ picture
    12·1 answer
  • What is the process of buying and using goods and services?
    14·1 answer
  • Why the abolishment of feudalism was not an actual reform?
    9·1 answer
  • how has the united nations treaty over the sea changed over time. PLEASEEE ANSWER IN DETAIL AND LIKE IN UR IWN WORDS THANKS
    13·1 answer
  • What constitutional issues were raised by the federal government's efforts to end the Great Depression? Describe how the Supreme
    12·1 answer
  • In 1967, ethnic minorities rebelled against yoruba rule in .
    11·1 answer
  • Select the correct answer,
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!