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liq [111]
3 years ago
10

Until August 1971, industrialized countries around the world maintained a fixed exchange rate of their currencies with the US do

llar, which was linked to gold. The gold standardized system was called the Bretton Woods Fixed Exchange Rate System. This system collapsed in 1971, and since then, the dollar has not been linked to gold.
Based on your understanding of the international monetary system, complete the following statements:

• A ________ exchange rate is the quoted price for a unit of foreign currency to be delivered at a specified date in the future.

• The government does not set a ________ exchange rate, which means that supply and demand in the market determine the currency’s value.

• When American customers import more from Europe than they export to Europe, the euro_______ relative to the dollar.

• The __________________ of a currency refers to an increase or decrease of the stated par value of a currency whose value is fixed.

• Under a ______________ floating regime, supply and demand for the currency determine the exchange rate. Currencies under such a regime are called currencies.

• A __________ occurs when a country agrees to exchange its own currency for a specified foreign money unit at a fixed exchange rate and legislates domestic currency restrictions unless it has the foreign currency reserves to cover requested exchanges.

Options
1- Forward, spot
2- Pegged, Floating
3- appreciates, depreciates
4- devaluation or revaluation, depreciation or appreciation
5- freely, managed 6- convertible, nonconvertible
7- fixed-peg arrangement, currency board arrangement
Business
2 answers:
Alona [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

A forward exchange rate is the quoted price for a unit of foreign currency to be delivered at a specified date in the future.

The government sets a fixed exchange rate that is allowed to fluctuate only slightly (if at all) around the par value.

When American customers import more from Europe than they export to Europe, the euro appreciate relative to the dollar.

The depreciation or appreciation of a currency refers to a decrease or increase, respectively, in the foreign exchange value of a floating currency.

Under a managed floating regime, the government plays a significant role in managing the exchange rate by manipulating the currency's supply and demand.

Currencies under such a regime are nonconvertible currencies.

Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

• A forward exchange rate is the quoted price for a unit of foreign currency to be delivered at a specified date in the future.

• The government does not set a floating exchange rate, which means that supply and demand in the market determine the currency’s value.

• When American customers import more from Europe than they export to Europe, the euro depreciates relative to the dollar.

The revaluation of a currency refers to an increase or decrease of the stated par value of a currency whose value is fixed.

• Under a freely floating regime, supply and demand for the currency determine the exchange rate. Currencies under such a regime are called convertible currencies.

• A fixed-peg arrangement occurs when a country agrees to exchange its own currency for a specified foreign money unit at a fixed exchange rate and legislates domestic currency restrictions unless it has the foreign currency reserves to cover requested exchanges.

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"compare intel's actual and pro forma (as if) ratios of intangible assets to long-lived tangible assets in 2012. use r&d cap
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A firm has a long-term debt-equity ratio of .4. Shareholders’ equity is $1 million. Current assets are $200,000, and the current
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

Total debt ratio is 33.33%

Explanation:

A long term debt to equity ratio of 0.4 tells that the value of long term debt is 0.4 or 40% of the value of the equity. If the value of the equity is $1 million, the value of long term debt is,

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A current ratio is calculated by dividing the current assets by the current liabilities. It tells how many current assets are available to satisfy $1 of current liabilities. A current ratio of 2 means that for every $1 of current liability, $2 of current assets are available. Thus, current liabilities are half of current assets. If the value of current assets is $200000, the value of current liabilities is,

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5 0
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2 years ago
Use the information presented in Northeastern Mutual Bank's balance sheet to answer the following questions.
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

The explanation is given as follows.

Explanation:

<u>Task 1: </u>

<u>The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.</u>

When the owners of the bank borrow $100 to supplement their existing reserves , both reserves and debt increase by $100 , therefore increase in debt as in any balance sheet , the total value of accounts on the left hand should be equal to the right hand , so when there is increase in reserves , there will be increase in debt.

<u>Task 2:</u>

<u>It specifies a minimum leverage ratio for all banks </u>

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leverage ratio new value = total assets / capital = 1850 / 125 = 14.8 ( the assets increase by $100 with increase in reserves)

<u>Task 3</u>

<u>Its intended goal is to protect the interests of those who hold equity in the bank.</u>

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