Answer:
No.
Step-by-step explanation:
To determine if (0,0) is a solution to the inequality, substitute 0 for x and 0 for y and check to see. Thus:

Substitute 0 for x and 0 for y:

Multiply:

Subtract:

So, (0,0) is <em>not</em> a solution.
And we're done!
-1, maybe or maybe not this is my first time doing this
Hello,

That means that we must first obtain x, then we replace x in the function to get y, so:
Answer: V=(-4 , -4)
When Area of rectangle is constant, then the length x is inversely proportional to the width y of the rectangle.

We know that the area of a rectangle is given by the product of the length and width of the rectangle.
Area = Length*Width
In this given problem,
The length of the rerectanglctangle is represented by x
and the width of the rectangle is represented by y
If the area of the rectangle is represented by A now.
So by the formula,
A = x*y
When A is constant then,
x = A/y

So from the above calculation we can conclude that about relation between length and width that,
"When Area of rectangle is constant, then the length x is inversely proportional to the width y of the rectangle."
Learn more about Area here -
brainly.com/question/25292087
#SPJ10
Answer:
answer is b
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm smart bro