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devlian [24]
3 years ago
5

Which function is the inverse of g(x) = –(3∕x) – 4?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Finger [1]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

We just need to swap x and g(x) to get:

x = -3 / g(x) - 4

x + 4 = -3 / g(x)

g(x) * (x + 4) = -3

g(x) = -3 / (x + 4)

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Karen's fish tank has 13 liters of water in it. She plans to add 4 liters per minute until the tank has at least 57 liters. What
guapka [62]

Answer:

Karen has to at least spend 11 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because 57 - 13 = 44. 44 divided by 4 = 11. This means that in 11 minutes Karen will have a 57 liter tank. But she could keep going, but the least number of minutes would be 11 minutes, to get to 57 liters.

I hope this helps! Please mark me Brainliest if it did! Thank you and have a nice day!

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The equation of a circle is shown below. What is its center and radius? (x - 5.3)^2 + (y + 3.3)^2=49. ANSWERS ATTACHED, 15 POINT
sweet [91]

Answer:

The center is ( 5.3, -3.3) and 7 is the radius

Step-by-step explanation:

We can write the equation of a circle as

( x-h)^2 + ( y-k)^2 = r^2

Where ( h,k) is the center and r is the radius

(x - 5.3)^2 + (y + 3.3)^2=49

(x - 5.3)^2 + (y -  -3.3)^2=7^2

The center is ( 5.3, -3.3) and 7 is the radius

8 0
3 years ago
No links or pdf thanks so much
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

22°

Step-by-step explanation:

The square in the corner indicates that this is a right angle = 90° and the line separates this into two angles, x and 68°

x + 68 = 90

<u>x = 22°</u>

Hope this helps!

5 0
2 years ago
PLEASE SOMEONE HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
dezoksy [38]
<1 and <2 are supplementary angles. They add up to 180 degrees.

92 and <2 are corresponding angles, they have the same measure.

So,<2 = 92 degrees

180-92= 88 degrees

<1= 88 degrees

I hope this helps!
~kaikers
7 0
3 years ago
Define fn : [0,1] --&gt; R by the
sasho [114]

Answer:

The sequence of functions \{x^{n}\}_{n\in \mathbb{N}} converges to the function

f(x)=\begin{cases}0&0\leq x.

Step-by-step explanation:

The limit \lim_{n\to \infty }c^{n} exists and converges to zero whenever \lvert c \rvert. But, if c=1 the sequence \{c^{n}\} is constant and all its terms are equal to 1, then converges to 1. Using this result, consider the sequence of functions \{f_{n}\} defined on the interval [0,1] by f_{n}(x)=x^{n}. Then, for all 0\leq x we have that \lim_{n\to \infty}x^{n}=0. Now, if x=1, then \lim_{n\to \infty }x^{n}=1. Therefore, the limit function of the sequence of functions is

f(x)=\begin{cases}0&0\leq x.

To show that the convergence is not uniform consider 0. For any n>1 choose x\in (0,1)  such that \varepsilon^{1/n}. Then

\varepsilon

This implies that the convergence is not uniform.

8 0
3 years ago
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