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Blababa [14]
4 years ago
13

Civil engineering consulting fi rms that provide services to outlying communities are vulnerable to a number of factors that aff

ect the fi nancial condition of the communities, such as bond issues and real estate developments. A small consulting fi rm entered into a fi xed-price contract with a large developer, resulting in a stable income of $260,000 per year in years 1 through 3. At the end of that time, a mild recession slowed the development, so the parties signed another contract for $190,000 per year for 2 more years. Determine the present worth of the two contracts at an interest rate of 10% per year.
Business
1 answer:
Evgen [1.6K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$894,336

Explanation:

The computation of the present worth of two contracts is shown below:

= (Stable income × PVIFA at 3 years for 10%) + (Signed amount × PVIFA at 2 years for 10%) × PVF at 3 years for 10%

= ($260,000 × 2.4869 ) + ($190,000 × 1.7355 ) × 0.751314801

= $646,594 + $329,745  × 0.751314801

= $894,336

Refer to the PVIFA table and the discount factor table so that the correct amount could come

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Jacques lives in Miami and runs a business that sells boats. In an average year, he receives $793,000 from selling boats. Of thi
KatRina [158]

<u>Explanation</u>:

Remember, Implicit cost refers to cost that do not involve monetary transactions by Jacques, while his Explicit cost includes all forms of direct payments made by Jacques to others while selling his boat.

<u>Therefore, the cost are assigned below:</u>

  1. The $50,000 salary Jacques could earn if he worked as a financial advisor= Implicit Cost
  2. The $15,000 rental income per year Jacques would receive if he chose to rent out his showroom= Implicit
  3. The wholesale cost of $430,000 and utility bills totaling $301,000 cost for the boats that Jacques pays the manufacturer= Explicit Cost

4 0
4 years ago
Customer World provides services to customers and allows customers to pay by credit card. On Thursday, a customer purchased a ca
Triss [41]

Answer:

The answer is $1.55

Explanation:

From the question above, we have the following:

Money spent by customer = $65

Transaction fee = $0.25

Percentage charge = 2% of the total charge

We calculate the total transaction fee as follows:

2% of $65 will be = 0.02 X $65

=> $1.3

Recall that there is a transaction fee = $0.25.

Therefore, total transaction fee:

$1.3 + $0.25

=> $1.55

6 0
3 years ago
Computer equipment was acquired at the beginning of the year at a cost of $70,700 that has an estimated residual value of $4,200
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

a, The depreciable cost when using the straight line method is;

= Cost of asset - Residual value

= 70,700 - 4,200

= $66,500

b. As the rate is uniform over the life of the asset, the rate is 100% divided by the life of the asset.

= 100%/5

= 20%

c. Annual depreciation will therefore be;

= Depreciation rate * depreciable cost

= 20% * 66,500

= $‭13,300‬

5 0
3 years ago
The JPY/AUD spot exchange rate is 82.42, the JPY interest rate is 0.15%, and the AUD interest rate is 4.95%. If the interest rat
defon

Answer:

The answer is B. -97.7.

Explanation:

As the question gives us the spot rate, the interest rates of two countries, We can apply the covered interest parity to calculate the 90-day forward exchange rate JPY/AUD from which 90-day forward points can be derived.

F = S x ( 1+ Rjpy) / ( 1+ Raud); in which Rjpy denoted as JPY interest rate ( 0.15% per annum) while Raud is AUD interest rate ( 4.95% per annum).

F = 82.42 x (1+ 0.15% x 90/360) / ( 1 + 4.95% x 90/360) = 81.443

=> The 90-day forward points is : 100 x ( F-S) = 100 x ( 81.443 - 82.42) = -97.7

3 0
3 years ago
Price Company assigns overhead based on machine hours. The Milling Department logs 2,400 machine hours and Cutting Department sh
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

B) credit to Manufacturing Overhead for $32,000.

Explanation:

Total manufacturing overhead = (milling department machine hours + cutting department machine hours) x overhead rate per machine hour = (2,400 + 4,000) x $5 = $32,000.

Since the manufacturing overhead expense is allocated to the asset produced, the expense is credited. Once the product is sold, the expense will become part of the cost of goods sold and they will be debited.

6 0
3 years ago
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