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olya-2409 [2.1K]
4 years ago
9

Which equation in slope-intercept form represents a line that is parallel to y=−4x−5 and passes through the point (0,0)?

Mathematics
2 answers:
nlexa [21]4 years ago
7 0
E i believe is the answer !
Contact [7]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

E

Step-by-step explanation:

The line is negative and it was shifted down 5 units meaning it goes through -5,0. It needs to move up five so y=-4x-5+5= y=-4x

You might be interested in
Jarrod earns $12 per hour helping a painter and $15
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

$14 per hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

I answered this before for someone I think.

$$$ earned from the painter: 120

$$$ earned from the carpenter: 300

(300+120)/30= 14 per hour

Hope this helps!

6 0
3 years ago
What is the surface area of the triangular prism?
trasher [3.6K]

The surface area of the triangular prism is: B. 72 sq. ft

<h3>Surface Area of a Triangular Prism</h3>
  • The surface area of a triangular prism is given by the formula: SA = bh + (s1+s2+s3)H
  • Where, b is the base, h is the height, and s1+s2+s3 is the perimeter of the triangular base, H is the length of the prism.

Thus, given the triangular prism as shown in the diagram attached below, we have the following:

b = 4 ft

h = 3 ft

H = 5 ft

s1 + s2 + s3 = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 ft

  • Plug in the values

Surface area = 4×3 + (12)5 = 12 + 60 = 72

Therefore, the surface area of the triangular prism is: B. 72 sq. ft

Learn more about the surface area of triangular prism on:

brainly.com/question/16147227

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation
rodikova [14]

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
I need help with 10. A-C please
denis-greek [22]
A. first total salary (S) is what is being found so put that on one side of the equal side, then 100 dollars are being made and this is not changed so we don't need a variable, put that on the other side of the equal sign.  and since sales (X) is changing, keep the variable, 30% of that is added to the salary, so multiply that by x (first turn it into a decimal, divide it by 100) and add that to the initial 100

S=100+.3X

B. do the same thing above but with a new decimal and initial salary

S=150+.15X

C. since they both need to be equal (S=S) you can replace the S on one equation with the other

100+.3X=150+.15X
4 0
3 years ago
You are given a bag of jelly beans. There are 7 red, 8 blue, 4 yellow, and 10 pink. Find the probability of drawing 2 blue in a
miss Akunina [59]
Okay so the probability of drawing a blue bean is

8 / 29 = .276

29 is the total number of jelly beans

When we have replacement, we do not reduce the number of total jelly beans, so the probably of drawing blue stays the same.

But to find the probability of drawing a blue two times in a row, we must square the probability .

(.276) • (.276) = 0.076

Your answer is 7.6% !

If your have any questions, leave a comment! I hope I helped :)
4 0
3 years ago
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