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Anna11 [10]
3 years ago
12

Looking for 45/20 in fractions

Mathematics
2 answers:
andrey2020 [161]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

mixed fraction:

2 1/4, also written as 2 5/20

Step-by-step explanation:

45 goes into 20 a complete 2 times with a remainder of 5, hence the 2 in 2 1/4.

5 goes into 20 a whole 4 times, hence 1/4 or 5/20.

Marizza181 [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 45/20= 9/4

Also, it can give 2 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Find a common divisible number between the denominator and numerator which is 5, divide it by 5, it gives 9/4

Then to get a mixed fraction, you divide by the new denominator to give 2 as a whole number, then 1/4

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Laura got a discount of 100 dollars on her purchase of a 5775 bed.What is the percent of decrease?
matrenka [14]
Remember that percent means parts out of 100
x/100

discount is the decrease
so we divide the decrease by the original total and get
100/5775=0.0173
convert to fraction
0.0173/1
make bottom number 100
multiply by 100/100
1.73/100=1.73%
round
2%
5 0
3 years ago
Find x =
olga nikolaevna [1]
If they proportional, it implies

(x+2)/(x-1) = 8/10

Or 10x +20 = 8x-8

Or 2x = -28 or x = -14
5 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Can You Find The Square Root Of 8,569
Agata [3.3K]
92.57 is the square root
5 0
3 years ago
Find the equation of a line that passes through the points (2,13) and (1,8)
kkurt [141]

Answer:

y = 5x + 3  

I hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
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