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lina2011 [118]
3 years ago
5

Match the following items.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
4 0

This problem can be solved using probability, the equation of the probability of an event A is P(A)= favorable outcomes/possible outcomes. The interception of two probable events is P(A∩B)= P(A)P(B).

There are 12 black marbels, 10 red marbles, and 18 white marbels, all the same size. If two marbles are drawn from the jar without being replaced.

The total of the marbles is 40.

If two marbles are drawn from the jar without being replaced, what would the probability be:

1. of drawing two black marbles?

The probability of drawing one black marble is (12/40). Then, the probability of drawing another black marble after that is (11/39) due we drawing one marble before.

P(Black∩Black) = (12/40)(11/39) = 132/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(Black∩Black) = 11/130

2. of drawing a white, then a black marble?

The probability of drawing one white marble is (18/40). Then, the probability of drawing then a black marble after that is (12/39) due we drawed one marble before.

P(White∩Black) = (18/40)(12/39) = 216/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(White∩Black) = 9/65

3. of drawing two white marbles?

The probability of drawing one white marble is (18/40). Then, the probability of drawing another white marble after that is (17/39) due we drawed one marble before.

P(White∩White) = (18/40)(17/39) = 306/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(White∩White) = 51/260

4. of drawing a black marble, then a red marble?

The probability of drawing one black marble is (12/40). Then, the probability of drawing then a red marble after that is (10/39) due we drawed one marble before.

P(Black∩Red) = (12/40)(10/39) = 120/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(Black∩Red) = 1/13

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Reil [10]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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Consider the function f(x)=xln(x). Let Tn be the nth degree Taylor approximation of f(2) about x=1. Find: T1, T2, T3. find |R3|
Fynjy0 [20]

Answer:

R3 <= 0.083

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=xlnx,

The derivatives are as follows:

f'(x)=1+lnx,

f"(x)=1/x,

f"'(x)=-1/x²

f^(4)(x)=2/x³

Simialrly;

f(1) = 0,

f'(1) = 1,

f"(1) = 1,

f"'(1) = -1,

f^(4)(1) = 2

As such;

T1 = f(1) + f'(1)(x-1)

T1 = 0+1(x-1)

T1 = x - 1

T2 = f(1)+f'(1)(x-1)+f"(1)/2(x-1)^2

T2 = 0+1(x-1)+1(x-1)^2

T2 = x-1+(x²-2x+1)/2

T2 = x²/2 - 1/2

T3 = f(1)+f'(1)(x-1)+f"(1)/2(x-1)^2+f"'(1)/6(x-1)^3

T3 = 0+1(x-1)+1/2(x-1)^2-1/6(x-1)^3

T3 = 1/6 (-x^3 + 6 x^2 - 3 x - 2)

Thus, T1(2) = 2 - 1

T1(2) = 1

T2 (2) = 2²/2 - 1/2

T2 (2) = 3/2

T2 (2) = 1.5

T3(2) = 1/6 (-2^3 + 6 *2^2 - 3 *2 - 2)

T3(2) = 4/3

T3(2) = 1.333

Since;

f(2) = 2 × ln(2)

f(2) = 2×0.693147 =

f(2) = 1.386294

Since;

f(2) >T3; it is significant to posit that T3 is an underestimate of f(2).

Then; we have, R3 <= | f^(4)(c)/(4!)(x-1)^4 |,

Since;

f^(4)(x)=2/x^3, we have, |f^(4)(c)| <= 2

Finally;

R3 <= |2/(4!)(2-1)^4|

R3 <= | 2 / 24× 1 |

R3 <= 1/12

R3 <= 0.083

5 0
3 years ago
A leprechaun places a magic penny under a​ girl's pillow. The next night there are 2 magic pennies under her pillow. Each night
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

  • tn = 2097152 pennies
  • tn = 20971.52 dollars.

Step-by-step explanation:

A surprisingly large amount of money.

The question is "Does the amount of money just double or do the previous amounts add to the present amount?"

I think it just doubles. Not only that, but she can't spend any of it until night 22 is reached.

  • tn = a*2^(n - 1)
  • a = 1   She starts with 1 penny.
  • n = 22
  • tn = 1*2^(22 - 1)
  • tn = 1*2^21
  • tn = 2097152 pennies
  • tn = 20971.52 dollars.
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4 years ago
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Answer:

196

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the largest share was 56 and the largest ratio is 14, then

56 ÷ 14 = 4 ← value of 1 part of the share, thus

8 parts = 8 × 4 = 32

6 parts = 6 × 4 = 24

9 parts = 9 × 4 = 36

14 parts = 14 × 4 = 56

12 parts = 12 × 4 = 48

Total the amounts

total = 32 + 24 + 36 + 56 + 48 = 196

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