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BigorU [14]
3 years ago
6

Sarah takes out a loan today for $26,000 at an interest rate of 2 percent a year. She plans to repay the loan after 5 years. How

much will he have to pay?
Sarah will have to pay:__________
Business
1 answer:
Trava [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$28,706.10

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of pay is shown below:

Here we have to find the future value by using the following formula

Future value = Present value × (1 + interest rate)^number of years

= $26,000 × (1 + 0.02)^5

= $28,706.10

We simply applied the above formula so that the amount of pay could be come and the same is to be considered

You might be interested in
Grossman lumber reported $102,000 net cash provided by its operating activities. if the company invests $4,000 in capital expend
sweet [91]

FCF is a measure of how much cash a business generates from operations, net of capital expenditures, which it can use for various purposes, such as reducing debt or paying out dividends. When calculating FCF, we take Cash provided by operating activities and subtract any capital expenditures. Grossman Lumber generated $102,000 in cash from operations, and invested 4,000 in capital expenditures, so its FCF is 102,000-4,000= $98,000. We are not concerned with dividends because dividends are not a capital expenditure. 

6 0
3 years ago
Roger is new-product project manager for a medical equipment company. Recently the team has exhibited a high degree of conflict
Flauer [41]

Answer: Storming stage

               

Explanation: In simple words, it refers to the stage in which conflict between members of a group starts happening due to arise of individual personalities. This is last and most crucial stage of team development process.

In this stage the performance of team starts declining due to lack of harmony and trust among the members of the team.  In the given case, Roger's team has been facing conflict over the controlling issues ,hence, we can conclude that they are at storming stage of development.

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?a. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take accoun
KIM [24]

Answer:

d. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take proper account of differences in the sizes of projects.

CORRECT As the project yields over time can differ. This generates that projects with a lower IRR can achieve a higher NPV at lower rates.

There is a crossover point after which a projects NPV are equal and from there the one with higher IRR obtains better NPV

Explanation:

a. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the time value of money.

FALSE both method consider time value of money

b. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the cost of capital

FALSE The IRR can be compared against the cost of capital to indicate wether or not a project should be preferable

.c. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future.

FALSE IRR considers the time value of money

e. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of cash flows over a project's full life.

FALSE it considers all the cash flows over the project's full life.

7 0
3 years ago
Brenda conducts brokerage activities and can receive compensation directly from buyers
kykrilka [37]

Answer:

A) Broker

Explanation:

she is a Broker if she recieves compensation directly from either buyers or seller.

moreover, she conducts brokerage activities.

hope it helps .

5 0
3 years ago
Knelling Company reported a balance in Accounts Receivable of $50,000 and a credit balance of $3,000 in the Allowance for Doubtf
Crank

Answer:

Bad Debt A/c Dr  $9,000

To Credit Allowance for Bad & Doubtful  A/c    $9,000

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the journal entry are given below:

Journal Entry:

Bad Debt A/c Dr  $9,000

To Credit Allowance for Bad & Doubtful  A/c    $9,000

(Being the Bad debt A/c is recorded)

The computation for bad debts are given below:

 Bad debts = Uncollectible Amount - Credit balance in Allowance for doubtful A/c

Where,

Uncollectible Amount = $12,000

Credit balance in Allowance for doubtful A/c = $3,000

By putting the value we get,

= $12,000 - $3,000

= $9,000

8 0
3 years ago
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