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gavmur [86]
3 years ago
11

A repeated-measures test usually is more likely to detect a real treatment effect than an independent-measures test because the

repeated-measures design typically has a smaller variance and a smaller estimated standard error. T/F
Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A repeated measure test is a type of ANOVA test that helps to analyse the means across the variables that are repeated values and observations.  Repeated measure ANOVA test is more effective and efficient compared to real treatment test because the variation from the mean is small and has a smaller estimated error. Meaning, the probability of the wrong estimation is slightly less as compared to real treatment test.

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A random sample of 160 households is selected to estimate the mean amount spent on electric service. A 95% confidence interval w
Yuri [45]

Answer:

Option D. We are 95% confident that the mean amount spent on electric service among the 160 households is between $151 and $216.

Explanation:

A confidence interval is a range of values, derived from the sample statistics, which may include the value of an unknown population parameter.

A 95% confidence interval indicates that between 152 of 160 samples (95%) of the same population will produce confidence intervals that will contain the population parameter.

It also means that we have a 95% confidence that the average (average amount) is among the resulting amounts obtained.

Logically, option "D" is missing the final part. This would be: D. We are 95% confident that the mean amount spent on electric service among the 160 households is between $ 15.

This is the only true option, since the test is based on a sample of only 160 households, the entire population of households cannot be included.

Hence, the correct option is:

Option D. We are 95% confident that the mean amount spent on electric service among the 160 households is between $151 and $216.

7 0
4 years ago
Hazel Morrison, a mutual fund manager, has a $40 million portfolio with a beta of 1.00. The risk-free rate is 4.25%, and the mar
lianna [129]

Answer:

average beta of the new stocks to achieve the target required rate of return is 2.29

Explanation:

given data

Portfolio amount invested = $40,000,000

Beta = 1  

Risk free rate = 4.25%

Market risk premium = 6%

Hazel expects = $60 million

expected return new investments = 13.00%

to find out

average beta of new stocks be to achieve the target required rate of return

solution

we will use here CAPM formula that is  

Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta × Market risk premium    .........1

put here value we get  

13% = 4.25% + Beta × 6%

0.06 × Beta = 13% - 4.25%

Beta = 1.458

now we get Weighted beta that is express as

Weighted beta = weight of old stock in new portfolio × 1 + Weight of new stock in new portfolio × beta of new stock    ..................2

put here value we get

1.458 = \frac{40}{(40+22)} * 1 +\frac{22}{(22+22)} * debt

solve it we get

beta = 2.29

so that average beta of the new stocks to achieve the target required rate of return is 2.29

8 0
3 years ago
Interest versus dividend expense Michaels Corporation expects earnings before in- terest and taxes to be $50,000 for the current
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

a. In case of interest paid = $24,700.

b. In Case Preferred Dividend is Paid = $20,500

Explanation:

Earnings before Interest And Taxes (EBIT) = $50,000

a. In case of interest paid

EBIT = $50,000

Less: Interest = $12,000

Earnings Before Taxes = $50,000 - $12,000 = $38,000

Less: Tax @35% = $38,000 X 0.35 = $13,300

Earnings After Tax =$38,000 - $13,300 = $24,700.

This is the value available for common stock.

b. In Case Preferred Dividend is Paid

EBIT = $50,000

Less: Taxes @ 35 % = $50,000 X 0.35 = $17,500

Earnings After Tax = $50,000 - $17,500 = $32,500

Less: Preference Dividend = $12,000

Earnings available for equity or common stock = $32,500 - $12,000 = $20,500

The difference is of tax benefit on payment of interest as that is taxable and preference dividend is not taxable.

a. In case of interest paid = $24,700.

b. In Case Preferred Dividend is Paid = $20,500

7 0
3 years ago
CDF Appliances has assembly plants in Atlanta and Fort Worth where it produces a variety of kitchen appliances, including a 12-c
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

Cappuccino machines should be produced in Atlanta and coffee makers in Fort Worth. The Fort Worth facility would need to operate 100 hours per week and the Atlanta facility would need to operate 140 hours per week.

Total costs associated to operating the facilities = ($2,400 x 100) + ($600 x 140) = $324,000

Explanation:

Since there is not constraint regarding the total number of labor hours that each plant can operate, then we must choose the plant that operates at the lower cost. The only restriction is total time = 7 days x 24 hours = 168 hours per week:

production costs Atlanta:

coffee maker = $600 / 160 = $3.75 per unit

cappuccino machine = $600 / 200 = $3 per unit

production costs Fort Worth:

coffee maker = $2,400 / 800 = $3 per unit

cappuccino machine = $2,400 / 200 = $6 per unit

Cappuccino machines should be produced in Atlanta and coffee makers in Fort Worth. The Fort Worth facility would need to operate 100 hours per week and the Atlanta facility would need to operate 140 hours per week.

6 0
3 years ago
Prepare the journal entries to record the following transactions for Blossom Company, which has a calendar year end and uses the
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

Dr. Cash                                      $124,200

Dr. Accumulated Depreciation $118,800

Dr. Loss on Disposal                 $16,200

Cr. Equipment                            $259,200

Explanation:

Depreciation is the recording of asset expense due to its use. It is due to use of fair value of the asset after use. The expense value reduces the asset value over useful life period.

As per given data

Cost of Asset = $259,200

Useful life= 5 years

Salvage Value = $43,200

Asset is purchased on January 1, 2020 and on September 30, 2022 depreciation of only 2 years and 9 months has charged.

Depreciation per year =  (Cost of Asset - Salvage Value) / Useful life = ($259,200 - $43,200) / 5 = $43,200

Accumulated Depreciation as on September 30, 2022 = ($43,200 x 2) + $43,200 x 9/12 = $118,800

Book value of the asset is the net of accumulated depreciation of the asset. The accumulated depreciation on September 30, 2022, is as follow:

Net Book value of Asset = 259,200 - $118,800 = $140,400

5 0
3 years ago
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