Answer:
loss of $ 1,400,000.00
Explanation:
Amount of share : two million:
offer price per share: $55
selling price per share: $53.80
Loss per share: $1.20
Total loss= $1.2X2,000,000= ($2,400.000.00)
Earning from spread: 0.5x2,000,000.00 =$1,000.000.00
Net earning: (2,400,000.00)+$1,000,000.00=($ 1,400,000.00)
loss of $ 1,400,000.00
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Contribution margin per unit = Sales - variable cost
Contribution margin per unit (Model A) = $432 - $404
Contribution margin per unit (Model A) = $28 per unit
Contribution margin per unit (Model B) = $410 - $304
Contribution margin per unit (Model B) = $106 per unit
False, Contribution margin per unit (Model B) is higher so, motivated to push sales of Model A will be false.
Break-even in units = Fixed cost / Contribution margin per unit
Break-even in units (Model A) = Fixed cost / $28
Break-even in units (Model B) = Fixed cost / $106
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Coke tried to diversify into the bottling industry by acquiring their bottlers and in the process creating a vertically integrated business. However, 5 years later, they did find out how difficult it was and it led to a failed diversification effort when sold off their bottling operations. This was majorly due to the fact that the bottling business required too much capital investment and time. Capital investment and time that an already large enterprise like coca cola couldn't afford at that period. The initial aim was to have control over the whole production process, but soon after the diversification failed, they went back to producing just the concentrates.
Answer:
The solution to this question can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
In point a:
When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.
In point b:
Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS."
Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.
Please find the graph file in the attachment.
