This would be a general partnership because both parties are responsible equally.
Answer:
$90
Explanation:
Option B is wrong because $1,035 is the dividend received from the company by Elizabeth.
Option C is wrong because $270 is the current market price of each share.
Option D is incorrect because $10,350 is the common stock value of 115 shares.
Option A is correct because $90 is Elizabeth's per-share basis in the company for which she received a dividend. Share's price increased to $270 after success.
Correct Question: Under current accounting practice, intangible assets are classified as
a. amortizable or unamortizable.
b. limited-life or indefinite-life.
c. specifically identifiable or goodwill-type.
d. legally restricted or goodwill-type.
Answer:
B, limited-life or indefinite-life
Explanation:
By defiinition, Intangible assests are assests that cannot be physically felt. it can also be said to be assets that are non physical in nature. This kind of assets include goodwill, image rights,brand recognition, copyrights, etc.
All of the above examples of assets are deemed intangible because they have no exact expiry or end date. It can either last for a long time or a short time. Assets like reputation are classified as intangible because it cant be felt and it doesnt have an exact end date. It is therefore a kind of asset that has limited-life or indefinite-life.
Cheers.
Answer:
a. increase price in the short run but not in the long run.
Explanation:
A perfectly competitive market is one in which firms in an economy produce similar goods, and use resources that are limited in quantity.
An increase in demand will result in a corresponding increase in price, and results in firms making high profits. In the diagram below it results in a shift of demand from D1 to D2.
In the long run as firms have low barrier to entry more firms enter the market and supply shifts from S1 to S2. There is reduction in prices and profits start to fall. This is illustrated in the second diagram.
Answer:
$1 par value
Explanation:
The computation of the par value of the stock after the split is given below:
= $200,000 ÷ (100,000 × 2 )
= $200,000 ÷ 200,000
= $1 par value
Hence, the par value of its stock after the split is $1 par value
We simply divide the balance by the number of outsanding shares so that the par value could come