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Elena L [17]
4 years ago
6

Two ways 4 people can share a 6 segment chewy fruit worm

Mathematics
1 answer:
LuckyWell [14K]4 years ago
3 0
One ways is to give each person one and then cut the remaining 2 in half so that way there are 4 more pieces to share

the second way is to cut all 6 pieces in half so that way there are 12 pieces and each person gets 3 pieces

Hope this helped! :))
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7x -2 + 10x + x + 6x What is x
pentagon [3]

Answer: 24x - 2

Step-by-step explanation: 7x -2 + 10x + x + 6x

                                                  24x -2

5 0
3 years ago
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Mark is going to an awards dinner and wants to dress appropriately. He is running behind schedule and asks his little brother to
Alchen [17]

Answer:1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

"Or" means add, so you add the two events together.

4 0
3 years ago
Multiply. Write your answer in scientific notation.
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

  1.462 × 10^20

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplication proceeds in the usual way. The rules of exponents apply. A final exponent adjustment is needed to put the number in scientific notation form. (Your calculator can do all of this for you.)

  (4.3×10^12)(3.4×10^7) = (4.3×3.4)×(10^12×10^7) = 14.62×10^(12+7)

  = 14.62×10^19

  = (1.462×10)×10^19 = 1.462×10^(1+19)

  = 1.462×10^20

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The rule of exponents used is ...

  (a^b)(a^c) = a^(b+c)

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I find it works well to estimate whether the product of the mantissas will be more than 10, then make adjustments to exponents before the multiplication:

  (4.3×10^12)(3.4×10^7) = (4.3×10^12)(0.34×10^8) = 1.462×10^(12+8)

  = 1.462×10^20

6 0
3 years ago
1. What is 3/4 divided by 1/6
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

9/2 or 4 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

  • 3/4 ÷ 1/6 = 3/4 × 6
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Therefore, the answer is 9/2 or 4 1/2.

3 0
3 years ago
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Find (f −1)'(a).<br><br> f(x) = 4 + x2 + tan(πx/2), −1 &lt; x &lt; 1, a = 4
Vinvika [58]

Answer:

The  solution  is   (f^{-1})'(a) = \frac{2}{\pi }

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The  function is  f(x) =  4 +  x^2  + tan [\frac{ \pi x}{2} ] ,     -1 <  x  <  1  a =  4

Here we are told find  (f^{-1}) (a)

Let equate

     f(x) =  a

So  

      4 +  x^2  + tan[\frac{\pi x }{2} ] =  4

       x^2  + tan[\frac{\pi x }{2} ]  =  0

For the equation above to be valid x must be equal to 0

  Now when x = 0

       f(0) = 4+0^2 + tan [\frac{ \pi * 0}{2} ]

=>      f(0) =  4

=>  0 =  f^{-1} (4)

Differentiating  f(x)

     f(x)'  =  0 + 2x  + sec^2 (\frac{\pi x}{2} )\cdot \frac{\pi}{2}

Now

    since 0 =  f^{-1} (4)

We have

      f(0)'  =  0 +  \frac{\pi }{2}  sec^2 (0)

       f(0)'  = \frac{\pi }{2}

Now  

        (f^{-1})'(a) =  \frac{1}{(\frac{\pi}{2} )}

        (f^{-1})'(a) = \frac{2}{\pi }

       

3 0
3 years ago
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