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kow [346]
3 years ago
13

A circular labyrinth has a circumference of 75 feet what is the distance from the outside edge of the labyrinth in to it center

use 3.14 for pie round your answer to the nearest foot
Mathematics
1 answer:
Bas_tet [7]3 years ago
6 0
The distance from the outside edge of a circle to its centre is given by its radius. The circumference of a circle is given by 2πr, thus if we know that this is equal to 75 feet and using π = 3.14, we get:

75 = 2*3.14*r
r = 11.942
Thus r = 12 ft (to the nearest foot)
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0  is proved for the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b,and c respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b and c respectively.

First term of given arithmetic progression is A

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The nth term can be written as

a_{n}=A+(n-1)D

pth term of given arithmetic progression is a

a_{p}=A+(p-1)D=a

qth term of given arithmetic progression is b

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rth term of given arithmetic progression is c

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We have to prove that

\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)=0

Now to prove LHS=RHS

Now take LHS

\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)

=\frac{A+(p-1)D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+(q-1)D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+(r-1)D}{r}\times (p-q)

=\frac{A+pD-D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+qD-D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+rD-D}{r}\times (p-q)

=\frac{Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD}{p}+\frac{Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD}{q}+\frac{Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD}{r}

=\frac{[Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD]\times qr+[Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD]\times pr+[Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD]\times pq}{pqr}

=\frac{Arq^{2}+pq^{2} rD-Dq^{2} r-Aqr^{2}-pqr^{2} D+qr^{2} D+Apr^{2}+pr^{2} qD-pDr^{2} -Ap^{2}r-p^{2} rqD+p^{2} rD+Ap^{2} q+p^{2} qrD-Dp^{2} q-Aq^{2} p-q^{2} prD+q^{2}pD}{pqr}

=\frac{Arq^{2}-Dq^{2}r-Aqr^{2}+qr^{2}D+Apr^{2}-pDr^{2}-Ap^{2}r+p^{2}rD+Ap^{2}q-Dp^{2}q-Aq^{2}p+q^{2}pD}{pqr}

=\frac{Arq^{2}-Dq^{2}r-Aqr^{2}+qr^{2}D+Apr^{2} -pDr^{2}-Ap^{2}r+p^{2}rD+Ap^{2}q-Dp^{2}q-Aq^{2}p+q^{2}pD}{pqr}

\neq 0

ie., RHS\neq 0

Therefore LHS\neq RHS

ie.,\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0  

Hence proved

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