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hichkok12 [17]
3 years ago
15

Inventories are part of investment and therefore included in gdp because

Business
1 answer:
Natasha_Volkova [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Inventories are part of investment and therefore included in GDP because firms produce goods and these goods may be unsold at the time GDP is computed

The value added method of calculating GDP recognizes inventory. Value added from raw materials to work in process and to finished goods are part of what goes into the computation of GDP

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Mr. Barker enjoys a comfortable retirement income. He recently had surgery and expected that he would have certain services and
olasank [31]

Answer:

What you could tell him is that you can offer to help him review all the plans appeal process as well as to help him ask the plan to review his coverage decision which will enable him to know why he had large charges in excess of his maximum out-of-pocket limit.

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that when he received the bill, their was large charges in excess of his maximum out-of-pocket limit which is a limit on the amount of money a person or an individual have to pay for covered medical care services in which we were still told that the large charges in excess of his maximum out-of-pocket limit also include a number of services and items he thought would be fully covered, therefore since he called you to ask what he could do, What you could tell him is that you will offer to help him review all the plans appeal process and to as well help him to ask the plan to review the coverage decision which is why coverage decision is of benefit because it enables a person or an individual to makes decision about their benefits including the amount they have to pay for their medical services plan.

6 0
3 years ago
Exercise 5-66 Bad Debt Expense: Percentage of Credit Sales Method Gilmore Electronics had the following data for a recent year:
Stels [109]

Answer:  Debit Bad debt expense $11,264, Credit Allowance for bad debt $11,264; Debit Allowance for bad debt $9,650, Credit Accounts receivable $9,650.

Explanation: Percentage of credit sales method means bad debt expense expressed as a percentage of sales.

The estimated bad debts rate is 2.2%, which translates to 2.2% of $512,000 (credit sales) = $11,264. The firm has to record this, being the estimated bad debts rate, as Debit to bad debt expense and Credit to allowance for bad debt. However, accounts receivable that was deemed uncollectible is $9,650. This amount would be taken out from the buffer in allowance account by debiting allowance for bad debt and crediting accounts receivable.

5 0
3 years ago
41 had investments in stock funds 91 had investments in bond funds 60 had investments in money market funds 47 had investments i
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

The answer is "22 and 80"

Explanation:

The important part is to understand how the Venn diagram can assist you with your numbers.

You cannot draw this one, and you can create one as follows:

the 3 sorts of funding, then make your way back thru the list

this is the figure in the center - "22 had all 3 funds"

where the four dimensions meet. In the next three statements, you'll be able to:

Work out where 2 circles connect (remember all 22 of those circles are connected).

That's because the numerals have been already placed throughout the center zone.

bond & money market solenoid valves at a ratio of 36-22=14

36-22=14 as to where the corporate market and the term deposit intersect

47-22=25 as to where equities and bonds connect You can use the top 3 statements to work out all the values in a table.

(Set of) just one circle (circle)

for stock the number is 141-(22+14+25)=80

for the bond, the number is91-(22+14+25)=30

for the money market, the number is 60-(22+14+14)=10

(universal set) Lastly, get the number that goes into the rectangle.

\to 200-(80+30+10+25+14+14+22)=5

a) 22\\b) 80

7 0
3 years ago
Value of Operations Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

Value of Operations Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the next 2 years, respectively; after the second year, FCF is expected to grow at a constant rate of 10%. The company's weighted average cost of capital is 18%. What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations

 Terminal value   = $1,783,333.33

Explanation:

Terminal value = FCF3/(WACC � g2)

FCF3 = FCF2 x 1.07 = $100,000 x 1.07 ? $107,000

      = $107,000/(.13 - .07)

      Terminal value = $1,783,333.33

8 0
3 years ago
A project to build a new bridge seems to be going very well since the project is well ahead of schedule and costs seem to be run
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Schedule variance = $1,428,140

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.132

Cost Performance Index = 0.801

Explanation:

Planned Value = $1,414,000 + $10,494,000 + $8,494,000 * 53%

                        = $20,402,000 * 53%

                        = $10,813,060

Earned Value = $1,414,000 + $10,494,000 + $8,494,000 * 60%

                        = $20,402,000 * 60%

                        = $12,241,200

Schedule Variance = Earned value - Planned value

                                = $12,241,200 - $10,813,060

                                = $1,428,140

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

                          = Earned value / Planned value

                          = $12,241,200 / $10,813,060

                          = 1.132

Actual Cost (AC)

                        = $1,294,000 + $8,994,000 + $4,994,000

                        = $15,282,000

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

                             = Earned value / Actual cost

                             = $12,241,200 / $15,282,000

                             = 0.801

3 0
3 years ago
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