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lutik1710 [3]
3 years ago
5

Is 1/2 equivalent to 5/8

Mathematics
2 answers:
kompoz [17]3 years ago
8 0
<span>No. 

To check this yourself, you need the denominators to be the same to be able to easily compare the two. 

For example, does 5/8 = 40/64? 

1. Determine what you would need to do to the denominator in 5/8 to make it 64. (Multiply it by 8) 
2. Find what fraction is equal to 1 with a denominator of 8. (8/8) 
3. Multiply the fraction 5/8 by the one you just found (8/8), numerator times numerator, denominator times denominator. 
4. Compare the answer with the second fraction. 

It is important that when you multiply the denominator by any number you multiply the numerator by the same number. This is to preserve the fraction's value. This works because any number divided by itself is equal to 1, AND when you multiply any number by 1 (whether 1 is in the form of 1 or 4/4 or 8/8 or 234/234), the answer is always equal to the original number. 

Another way to check would be to simply enter 1/2 into a calculator, write down the answer. Next enter 5/8 into a calculator. If the answers are the same, they are equal.</span><span>
</span>
Lyrx [107]3 years ago
4 0
1/2 is not equivalent to 5/8. For something to be equivalent to a certain value it has to be proportional. For example,3/6 is equivalent to 1/2
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