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lina2011 [118]
4 years ago
7

William​ Beville's computer training​ school, in​ Richmond, stocks workbooks with the following​ characteristics: Demand D = 19,

100 ​units/year
Ordering cost S = ​$26​/order
Holding cost H ​= $3​/unit/year
A) Calculate the EOQ for the workbooks.
B) What are the annual holding costs for the workbooks?
C) What are the annual ordering costs?
Business
1 answer:
Shalnov [3]4 years ago
8 0

Answer: EOQ =  575.38 units ≈ 575 units

Annual holding cost =$862.5 ≈ $863

annual ordering cost=$863.65 ≈ $864

Explanation:

a)the EOQ for the workbooks=\sqrt{ 2 X Demand x ordering cost / holding cost}

= \sqrt{2 x 19,100 x 26 / 3} = \sqrt{331,066.667}

=  575.38 units ≈ 575 units

b)the annual holding costs for the workbooks

Annual holding cost = Economic order quantity x Holding cost /2

                = (575 x 3)/2=$862.5 ≈ $863

c) the annual ordering costs = Demand X Ordering cost/ EOQ

     = 19,100 x 26/575

=$863.65 ≈ $864

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Managers depend on accurate factory overhead allocation to make decisions regarding product mix and product price. True False
irina [24]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

As we know that the overhead is an indirect cost

So for allocation of the factory overhead the managers are fully depend on the allocation and believed that it is correct and accurate. Also it is useful to make decisions with respect to the product mix and the price of the product

Therefore the given statement is true

And, the same is to be considered

6 0
3 years ago
An unsecured loan is one which you:
Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

You do not need collateral to be given an unsecured loan.

3 0
3 years ago
Warp Manufacturing Corporation uses a standard cost system to collect costs related to the production of its ski lift chairs. Wa
Flura [38]

Answer:

A. $37,400 unfavorable

Explanation:

With regards to the above, variable overhead spending variance is computed as

= (Actual hours × Actual rate) - (Actual hours × standard rate)

= $649,400 - ( 34,000 × $18)

= $649,400 - $612,000

= $37,400 unfavorable

Therefore, Warp's variable overhead spending variance for the month of September is $37,400 unfavorable

7 0
3 years ago
The fi corporation's dividends per share are expected to grow indefinitely by 5% per year.
dedylja [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

a.)

Dividend discount model(DDM) is used to determine the price of a stock.

The formula is as follows;

Price ;P0 = D1 /(r-g)

D1 = Dividend in year 1

r = capitalization rate or required rate of return

g = dividend growth rate

P0 = 8/( 0.10-0.05)

P0 = 160.

The price of the Fi corporation's stock is therefore $160.

b.)

Use the formula that shows the relationship between ROE , retention rate and growth rate. It's as follows;

g = ROE *b

g = growth rate

b = retention rate

Given Earnings per Share (EPS) = $12  and dividend = $8, find dividend payout ratio first.

retention ratio = (1 -dividend payout ratio)

dividend payout ratio = 8/12 = 0.667 or 66.7%

retention ratio ; b = (1 -0.667)

b = 0.333 or 33.3%

Plug it in the formula;

0.05 = ROE * 0.333

ROE = 0.05/0.333

ROE = 0.15 or 15%

c.)

This question is asking for the Present Value of Growth Opportunity (PVGO)

The formula is as follows;

PVGO = Price - EPS1 /r

Price = $160 (from part a)

Expected earnings per share (EPS) = $12

required rate of return(capitalization rate) ; r = 10% or 0.10 as a decimal

PVGO = 160 - 12/0.10

PVGO = 160 -120

PVGO = $40

Therefore, the  market is paying $40 per share for growth opportunities.

8 0
3 years ago
A machine has the initial cost (at time zero) of $150,000, an annual maintenance cost of $2,500, and a salvage value of $30,000.
just olya [345]

Answer:

the equivalent uniform annual worth of owning and operting the machien at 5% diiscount rate:

$17,610.88

Explanation:

we will bring each exceptional value to present date and then calcualte the PTM of that

First step:

present value of eahc lump sum:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

overhaul:

 Maturity 45,000

time  5

\frac{45000}{(1 + 0.05)^{5} } = PV

PV 35,258

Services:

20,000 year 4  = 16,454.05

10,000 year 8 =  6,768.39

salvage value

30,000 10 years =  18,417.40

<u>total present worth:</u>

150,000 + 6,768.39 + 16454.05 + 35258 - 18,417.40 = 190,063.04

now we calcualtethe PTM of this present value

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV  $190,063.04

time 10

rate 0.05

190063.04 \div \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-10} }{0.05} = C\\

C  $ 15,110.881

we add the 2,500 maintenance cost

$17,610.88

This will be the equivalent uniform annual worth of owning and operting the machien at 5% diiscount rate

6 0
4 years ago
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