Definitely A..partly because at the time in Europe the land routes to Asia were becoming increasingly dangerous to cross as such goods from the middlemen or merchants that made these trips became expensive also the persons that controlled the routes to Asia through particularly Turkey weren't allowing specific persons to cross to trade with East india
It could be argued that the "serf" was the "property" of the land during the Middle Ages, since under the feudal system that reigned supreme during this time, serfs (or peasants) had very little rights of their own.
