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Oliga [24]
4 years ago
8

Because of its quality​ investments, Carolina Corporation has always generated​ 30% to​ 40% of its gross income from passive sou

rces. In the current​ year, Carolina sold a block of stock in a company it acquired several years ago. As a result of the​ sale, the corporation realized a substantial​ long-term capital gain that will increase this​ year's investment income from​ 40% to​ 70% of gross income. Explain to​ Carolina's president why she should or should not be worried about the personal holding company tax.
Business
1 answer:
choli [55]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Carolina's president should be worried that her company could be considered a personal holding company​ (PHC), since the stock ownership requirement is met. The company must compute its adjusted ordinary gross income​ (AOGI). As AOGI excludes any capital gains and Sec. 1231​ gains, Carolina can avoid being a PHC even if it recognizes a large capital gain this year if its other investment income that is PHC income does not exceed​ 60% of AOGI.

Explanation:

A personal holding company (PHC) is a C corporation in which more than 50% of the value of its outstanding stock is owned (directly or indirectly) by five or fewer individuals and which receives at least 60% of its adjusted ordinary gross income from passive sources. Meaning that this year's investment income should be less than 60% of gross income or Carolina Corporation will be considered a personal holding company (PHC).

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When the investor's level of influence changes, it may be necessary to change to the equity method from another method. When the
muminat

Answer:

Carried over at the fair value that exists on date of transfer.

Explanation:

When the investor's level of influence changes, it may be necessary to change to the equity method from another method. When the level of ownership rises from less than 20% to a range of 20% to 50%, the equity method typically would become appropriate and the investment account balance should be carried over at the fair value that exists on date of transfer.

7 0
3 years ago
The natural rate of unemployment- also called full employment- means
nignag [31]

Answer:a

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements about torts is correct?
swat32

Hello There!

Your answer would be <u>C). A tortious act may also be a criminal act.</u>

The reason why C would be your answer is because a tortious act is something that harms someone in any way. The reason why it "may" be a criminal act is because determine if the tortious act is a criminal act really depends on the scenario that is occurring. For example, someone could cause a tortious act in a way of self defense, this scenario would be debatable because the person that committed the tortious act had a valid reason in doing so, and that was protecting themselves. But, if a person was to cause a tortious act by  hurting someone to steal from them, then that would definitely be a criminal act because they are performing dangerous things to someone else, and the person could file a lawsuit against it.

Let's dive into why the other answer choices are incorrect. We can use the old fashion process of elimination:

Answer choice "A). A tortious act is always a criminal act" is incorrect because it is not always a criminal act, it depends on the scenario it's in. This is the reason why this answer choice would be eliminated.

Answer choice "B). A criminal act is always a tortious act" is incorrect because there are MANY criminal acts that doesn't harm anyone, for example, tax evasion (not paying taxes) is a criminal act, but does not cause any harm to anyone. This is the reason why this answer choice would be eliminated.

Answer choice "D). A tortious act is the same as a contract dispute" is incorrect because harming someone is not the same as not doing what a contract says. A contact dispute is when someone that's part of a contract did not do a duty that the contract says that they're suppose to do, and that usually doesn't have to be any harm to anyone. That would not be the same as a tortious act, harming someone. This is the reason why this answer choice would be eliminated.

6 0
3 years ago
Alexis bought a stock for $34 a share two years ago. The stock does not pay any dividends. Today she sold the stock for $28.50 a
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

internal rate of return -16.17%

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is negative because the investment didn't receive dividends for two years. It means that the stock lost value. How much? 16.17% of its value in two years.

<h2>34 * (1 - 16,17%) = 28.5 </h2>

3 0
3 years ago
Use the following information to answer this question.
Oksanka [162]

Answer:

15.01%

Explanation:

The computation of the return on equity is shown below:

Return on equity = Net income ÷ Equity at the end of 2010 × 100

where,

Net income is $539

And, the equity at the end of 2010 is

= Common Stock + Retained Earnings

= $2,890 + $700

= $3,590

So, the return on equity is

= $539 ÷ $3,590  ×  100

= 15.01%

We simply applied the above formula to determine the return on equity

3 0
3 years ago
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