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stiks02 [169]
4 years ago
7

Translate the following: x is at most 6

Mathematics
1 answer:
olasank [31]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x <u>></u> 6

Step-by-step explanation:

If it is at most 6 then it could be equal to or less than 6 but not more so it would be a <u>></u>.

For example: If you had 6 dollars to spend at the store and you want to buy some candy. You can only buy something that is less than or equal to 6 dollars or else you wouldn't have enough money. Though this example would be different in real life bc of tax, it is the same type of thing.

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How many fifths are there in 3⅗​
Ilya [14]

Answer:

18/5

Step-by-step explanation:

5 1/5 = 1 thus 3 are 15 + 3 = 18/5

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3 years ago
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Help find the measure of b
emmainna [20.7K]

b= 81 degrees


Explanation:

A straight line is 180 degrees.

180 - 99 = 81

All the angles combined should be equal to 360, forming a circle.

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Jones Elementary is having a car wash to raise money for a community horse trail. Each car wash ticket costs $8.Tiara says the s
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7 0
3 years ago
Assume that when adults with smartphones are randomly​ selected, 51​% use them in meetings or classes. If 7 adult smartphone use
Morgarella [4.7K]

Answer:

P(X \geq 3) = 1-P(X

If we find the individual probabilities we gotL

P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.51)^0 (1-0.51)^{7-0}=0.0068  

P(X=1)=(7C1)(0.51)^1 (1-0.51)^{7-1}=0.0494  

P(X=2)=(7C2)(0.51)^2 (1-0.51)^{7-2}=0.1543

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.0068 +0.0494 +0.1543]= 0.7895

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=7, p=0.51)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

For this case we want to find this probability:

P(X \geq 3)

And we can use the complement rule for this case:

P(X \geq 3) = 1-P(X

If we find the individual probabilities we gotL

P(X=0)=(7C0)(0.51)^0 (1-0.51)^{7-0}=0.0068  

P(X=1)=(7C1)(0.51)^1 (1-0.51)^{7-1}=0.0494  

P(X=2)=(7C2)(0.51)^2 (1-0.51)^{7-2}=0.1543

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 3) = 1- [0.0068 +0.0494 +0.1543]= 0.7895

 

7 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression below? 2 [32 – (4 – 1)] X​
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

1222222

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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