Answer:
tagalog ka ay wla kng mgagawa wlng mkakaintindi sto
Overall the Islamic empires in the Indian subcontinent failed to covert the population to Islam.
<h3>Why are there Muslims in India and Pakistan?</h3>
There are Muslims in India and Pakistan thanks to the conquest of the Indian subcontinent by several Muslim empires with the most notable being the Mughal empire.
However, regardless of how much the empires tried, they were unable to convert the majority of the population to Islam as most of them remained Hindu.
Find out more on the Mughal Empire at brainly.com/question/248928
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Answer:
The answer is "Option A"
Explanation:
In the given question numbering of the choices were missing, which is defined in the attached file please find it.
In the question, only choice A is correct because of the agricultural existence or dependency of medieval European country currency upon forced labor, and wrong choices can be defined as follows:
- The reluctance of aristocracy leaders as well as other royal families with their staff and servants are not taken direct legal proceedings.
- It's not a high economic and social role with plowmen in the English traditional period.
- It is not the existence of alliance laws that require farmworkers from working for more than several hours per week.
Answer:
Explanation:thomas jefferson, john adams, berry smith, thomas ban,