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andreev551 [17]
3 years ago
14

What is the Greatest Common Multiple of 10 and 12

Mathematics
2 answers:
horsena [70]3 years ago
7 0
2 is the answer! :)

Hope this helps
Dima020 [189]3 years ago
4 0
The answer is 2..................
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Whats the answer for number 11?
viva [34]

Answer:

Option 4

Step-by-step explanation:

y = -5x + 2

-8 = -5(2) + 2

-8 = -10 + 2

Correct! :)

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2 years ago
Has anybody gotten a 100% on their FLVS Math segment exam?
Flura [38]

Answer:

i have

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
The winner of a 100 mile race drove his car to victory at a rate of 120.1229 mph. What was his time to the nearest thousandth of
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

t=1.201\ \text{hour}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

Distance, d = 100 mile

Velocity of the winner, v = 120.1229 mph

We know that velocity of an object is equal to distance per unit time. Let t is the time. So,

v=\dfrac{d}{t}\\\\t=\dfrac{d}{v}\\\\t=\dfrac{120.1229}{100 }\\\\t=1.201229\ \text{hour}\\\\\text{Round to the nearest thousandth}\\\\t=1.201\ \text{hour}

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8 0
2 years ago
Answer the question please ​
Papessa [141]

Answer:

I believe it is 9ft

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Determine the probability of selecting a two-child family with one boy and one girl assuming boys and girls are equally likely
Fittoniya [83]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.5 = 50% probability of selecting a two-child family with one boy and one girl.

For each child, there are only two possible outcomes, either it is a boy, or it is a girl. The probability of a child being a boy or being a girl is independent of any other child, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • Two children, hence n = 2.
  • Equally as likely to be a boy or a girl, hence p = 0.5.

The probability of one of each is P(X = 1), hence:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{2,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{1} = 0.5

0.5 = 50% probability of selecting a two-child family with one boy and one girl.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377

3 0
2 years ago
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