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vlabodo [156]
3 years ago
7

You are 22 years old, unmarried, have no children, and a take-home pay of $2,500 per month. You depended on your parents while a

ttending college. You are engaged to be married in 18 months. You have very little credit history, but want to establish a good credit rating so that you may be able to rent/buy a home and qualify for low-cost loans when you buy a new car or appliance. You also want to be able to qualify for credit cards with good reward programs and low fees and interest rate.
Read each statement below and indicate whether it is a good or bad reason for using debt.
Statement Bad reason Good reason
Debt provides the means to purchase big ticket products sooner rather than later.
You have unused credit available on your credit card.
Debt provides financial flexibility and convenience when making payments.
The habit of buying on credit can lead to overspending and overindebtedness.
Debt provides protection against rip-offs and fraud
When is the use of borrowed money for an education justified?
A) When the cost of your education is less than the estimated additional income that the education is expected to provide
B) When the investment is expected to generate additional income that is less than the cost of the education.
C) When the required repayments can be postponed for many years
D) When the cost of the student loan is less than the interest rate on your credit cards.
E) When the education will maintain your current quality of life
Business
1 answer:
Oksi-84 [34.3K]3 years ago
7 0
My guess for this answer is D , Hope this helps
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Flyer Company has provided the following information prior to any year-end bad debt adjustment: Cash sales, $153,000 Credit sale
rodikova [14]

Answer:

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts after Bad debt Expense is $2700

Explanation:

given data

Cash sales=  $153,000

Credit sales = $453,000

Selling and administrative expenses = $113,000

Sales returns and allowances= $33,000

Gross profit = $493,000

Accounts receivable = $140,000

Sales discounts = $17,000

doubtful accounts credit balance =  $1,500

solution

we know here Total Bad Debit = 3% of accounts receivable

that is Total Bad Debit =  0.03 × $140,000

Total Bad Debit =  $4200

so here allowance for doubtful account credit balance = $1500

so

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts after Bad debt Expense will be

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts =  $4200 - $1500

Balance of allowance for doubtful accounts  = $2700

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following actions has NO impact on your credit scores
kakasveta [241]
Which of what following?
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Martinez Corp. has the following beginning-of-the-year present values for its projected benefit obligation and market-related va
Reptile [31]

Answer:

2020  $11,700

2021  $8,080

2022  $14,040

Explanation:

PBO = Projected benefit Obligation

PA =  Plan Asset

Acc. OCI  = Accumulated OCI Gain /  Loss

Min. Amort loss = Minimum Amortization of Loss

Year : PBO ; PA ; Corridor 10% ; Acc. OCI ;  Min. Amort loss

2019 : $2,340,000 ;  $2,223,000 ;  $234,000

2020 : $2,808,000 ;  $2,925,000 ;  $280,800 ;  $397,800 ; 11,700

2021 :  $3,451,500 ;  $3,042,000 ;  $345,150 ;  $264,350 ; 8,080

2022 :  $4,212,000 ;  $3,510,000 ;  $421,200 ;  $280,800 ; 14,040

6 0
4 years ago
The demand curve faced by a pure monopoly isa. vertical.b. horizontal.c. upward sloping.d. downward sloping.
svlad2 [7]

Answer:

Downward sloping

Explanation:

In a market condition of pure monopoly, there is a single firm operating the whole market and managing all the buyers. All the buyers in this market condition are price takers because the price is set by the monopolist.

The pure monopolist faces the downward sloping demand curve which shows the inverse relationship between the price of the good and the quantity demanded and they can obtain the economic profits in the long run because of the restrictions over the entry of the other firms.

3 0
3 years ago
Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and 20-year corporate bonds are as follows T-bond = 3.72% AAA = 4.12% A = 4.64% B
Luba_88 [7]

Answer: Default risk differences.

Explanation:

The Default risk is the inherent risk a lender faces that a borrower will not pay them back the debt they want to borrow. The lender will therefore charger a high return to cater for this risk. The higher the risk, the higher the return charged.

T-bonds have no default risk because they are guaranteed by the US Government which is why it's rate is the lowest. For the other bonds, there is something called a Credit rating. Bonds are usually rated on how risky it will be to lend to the company borrowing with AAA being of the lowest risk. Therefore as one goes up from AAA, the bonds will have higher default risks.

4 0
3 years ago
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