Ratification of the 13th Amendment “HAD NO INFLUENCE ON” the voting strength of the Southern States
Answer:
Option 2
Explanation:
The complete question is
How are countries’ economies similar, even if they have access to different resources and are in different locations?
- They all must answer the questions of what to produce and how to produce it based on the resources they have.
- They all use the same method or share the same beliefs when making decisions about what to manufacture.
- They all must produce a certain number of different products to have a successful economy.
- They all must achieve a certain ratio of goods produced compared to goods purchased to make their economies work.
Solution
The countries have similar economy only when they have similarity in beliefs or operation. For instance countries having different geography, resources etc. can have capitalist economy depending on the fact that it put more emphasis to business and revenue generation than the betterment of society. Like wise similarity is operation such as opening the economy for the global market make it a globalized economy
Hence, option 2 is correct
As I understand it, Laissez-faire ideology maintains that the "free market" is the best way to determine what businesses can and should do. This means that businesses, in competition with one another, should be free to determine their paths free from any government rules or regulations. The belief is that the competition among various businesses will ultimately result in the best outcomes for society in general - Adam Smith's "invisible hand". As part of this philosophy, workers should also be free to compete with each other and choose to work wherever they wish and this process will also result in the best results for the workers as well.
However, isn't there a huge assumption in this philosophy? Doesn't the whole justification of this belief depends on the condition that there is perfect competition and that any company and any worker have the equal ability to compete with one another?
What if there is no perfect competition? What if some companies have advantages - due to any of a whole array of reasons - that place them in a non-competitive position vis a vis their competitors? Without perfect competition then other companies are not necessarily able to compete with other companies that have certain advantages. If such a situation exists, then advantaged companies may have the ability to pursue a course that results in their private benefit, but not necessarily to the benefit of society as a whole. The same would apply to workers in that reduced competition among companies would result in decreased leverage for potential employees.
To recap, if the Laissez-faire ideology maintains the best economic policy for society as a whole, and it depends on there being perfect competition on an ongoing basis with minimal government intervention, doesn't it fall apart if there is less than the perfect competition?
Answer:
The primary purpose of the Freedman's Bureau was to "C) provide work, education, and relief for former slaves," since the South was still a very economically and socially hostile environment for the newly-freed African Americans.
Explanation:
I believe it is traditional bc i’m 7383&292 iq
