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Lelechka [254]
3 years ago
6

As sales exceed the break‑even point, a high contribution‑margin percentag________.

Business
1 answer:
Maru [420]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: b. increases profits faster than does a low contribution-margin percentage

Explanation:

Contribution Margin refers to the amount of sales left after the Variable Costs of a good has been removed from it. That means Contribution Margin is simply Sales less Variable Costs. It helps to check how much is left to deal with Fixed Costs and how much profit remains after.

The Break-Even Point in sales refers to the point where Total Costs is equal to Total Revenue. At this point both variable costs and fixed costs have been covered by the Revenue.  

If you get to this Break-Even Point then, that means you don't have to worry about Fixed Costs anymore and your only worry is the Variable Costs which are present per good. At this point therefore, a Higher Contribution Margin percentage tells that Variable Costs are quite less than sales, this would enable a company to gain profit faster because Fixed Costs are out of the way and anything made over Variable Costs now is Profit.

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Laurs Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense. The Accounts Receivable balance is $200
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

c. Bad Debts Expense 6,000 ; Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 6,000

Explanation:

Before passing the adjusting entry, first we have to determine the adjusted amount which is shown below:

= Uncollectible balance - credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

where,

Uncollectible balance = Accounts receivable × uncollectible percentage

                                    = $200,000 × 4%

                                    = $8,000

And, the credit balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $2,000

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would be equal to

= $8,000 - $2,000

= $6,000

Now the adjusting entry would be

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $6,000

  To Allowance for doubtful debts  $6,000

(Being estimated bad debts is recorded)

5 0
3 years ago
Keys Printing plans to issue a $1,000 par value, 20-year noncallable bond with a 7.00% annual coupon, paid semiannually. The com
Tresset [83]

Answer:

The WACC change if the new tax rate was adopted is - 0.35%

Explanation:

For computing the WACC change, first we have to determine the after tax cost of debt by applying the 40% and 45% tax rate which is shown below:

After tax Cost of debt = Cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate)

For 40% tax rate, it would be

= 7% × ( 1 - 40%)

= 4.2%

For 45% tax rate, it would be

= 7% × ( 1 - 45%)

= 3.85%

The change in WACC would be

= 3.85% - 4.2%

= - 0.35%

7 0
3 years ago
On July 1, 2021, Apache Company, a real estate developer, sold a parcel of land to a construction company for $3,000,000. The bo
atroni [7]

Answer:

Revenue 2021 = $3,000,000

Revenue 2022 = $0

Explanation:

Given that,

Sold a parcel of land to a construction company = $3,000,000

book value of the land on Apache’s books = $1,200,000

In this case, revenue is identified at a point when the parcel of land is transferred to the construction company.

Therefore, full revenue from the sale of land should be recognized in the year 2021 because the transfer of land occured in 2021 and there will be no revenue reflected in the year 2022.

Revenue 2021 = $3,000,000

Revenue 2022 = $0

4 0
3 years ago
Will gie 5 star thanks and brainly
kogti [31]

Answer:

Try True, True, False, and guess on the last one I'm sorry if you get this wrong

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the United States and Canada both produce only two products, televisions and food. The United States can produce 10
algol13

Answer:

Option A. Two - Third of a television

Explanation:

Using Unitary Method,

Here, the opportunity cost of producing 150 pounds of food in US = 100 televisions

Similary the opportunity cost of producing 1 pound of food in US = 100 / 150 televisions = 0.66 televisions = 2/3 televisions

So the right option is A.

3 0
3 years ago
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