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Mashutka [201]
3 years ago
11

Assume that an Internet service provider (ISP) intentionally disclosed the contents of a lawful private e-mail message without c

onsent to someone other than the intended recipient. What statute would the ISP have violated?
Computers and Technology
1 answer:
Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986

Explanation:

<em>Electronic communications</em> involve the transfer of data, sounds, images, writing, signals, signs or any form of intelligence radio wire or any other means.

The Electronic Communication Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA) was passed into law by the US Congress to further restrict inappropriate wiretaps of electronic data or telephone calls and also, prohibit access to stored electronic communications. They further added pen-trap provisions that allow the tracing of communications over the telephone.

All these were put in place to primarily prevent unauthorized access to government communications.

If an Internet Service Provider (ISP) intentionally discloses the content of a lawful private email message without consent, they have violated the Electronic communication Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA).

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